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ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES |
| 10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and |
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1
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ("hijacked") and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ats shall try to:
Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above fl 290 and 500 feet when lower than fl 290 |
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2
The speed limitation for ifr flights inside ats airspace classified as c, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) amsl, is :
Not applicable |
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3
The speed limitation for vfr flights inside ats airspace classified as c, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) amsl, is :
250 kt ias |
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4
The speed limitation for ifr flights inside ats airspace classified as e, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) amsl, is :
250 kt ias |
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5
Which of the following annexes to the chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
Annex 14 |
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6
Which of the following annexes to the chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ats)?
Annex 11 |
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7
Which of the following is information that is not given and landing charts
Visibility minima in aip approach |
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8
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete cat 1 ("calvert") type of approach light system?
5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit |
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9
A precision approach runway cat. ii is an instrument runway served by ils and visual aids intended for operations down to:
A rvr of 300-450 meters and a dh of not less than 100 ft. |
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10
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : towards the runway .
Of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence |
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11
To perform a vfr flight in airspace classification e /
Two way radiocommunication is not required. |
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12
What is a "barrette"? appear as a bar of lights.
Three or more groundlights closely spaced together to |
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13
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision- approach runway cat ii :
900m |
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14
An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. which freedom of the air will be exercised ?
2nd freedom |
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15
An aircraft is maintaining fl 150 within airspace class c. another aircraft below at fl 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to fl 70. it is severe turbulence in the area. when is the earliest that a clearance to descend to fl 140 or below can be expected ?
When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through fl 130 |
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16
Which body of icao finalises the standard and recommended practices (sarps) for submission for adoption ?
The air navigation commission |
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17
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at :
300 m from threshold |
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18
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft the signals given by this aircraft conflict with atc instructions you should :
Follow the instructions of the intercepting |
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19
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
Taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways . |
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20
Where state has not established minimum ifr altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an ifr flight :
At least 2000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position |
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21
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, atc has to be informed in case :
The tas varies by plus or minus 5% of the tas notified in the flightplan. |
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22
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :
Information signs. yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. |
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23
The closure of a runway because of maintenance, will be published :
In notam and aip, |
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24
Which statement is correct?
The lower limit of a tma shall be established at a height of at least 700ft agl. |
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25
Which of the following statements regarding alerting service is correct? the time a communication should have been received.
Alerting service and flight information service are often provided by the same ats unit |
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26
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: applicable.
On the ground when the engines are running |
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27
In which chapter of the aip can you find a list with "location indicators"?
Gen |
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28
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than :
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter |
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29
Vmc minima for vfr flights in class b airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) amsl, are :
8 km visibility, and clear of clouds . |
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30
During an ifr flight in vmc in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. you will :
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining vmc and inform atc . |
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31
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using dme, and each aircraft "on track" uses dme stations, is:
20 nm. |
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32
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
10 minutes. |
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33
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
5 minutes. |
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34
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
3 minutes. |
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35
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
5 minutes. |
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36
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
3 minutes. |
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37
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed. |
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38
Flight information service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes :
C, d, e, f, and g |
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39
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by :
Each contracting state |
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40
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. the said appropriate authority :
Shall be specified to icao |
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41
Concerning to rnp (required navigation performance) types, the indication rnp 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
Plus or minus 4 nm on a 95 per cent containment basis |
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42
W ho is responsible, under annex 13 of the chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation?
The government of the state in which the accident took place |
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43
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of
60 nm or more |
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44
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is
An airmet information |
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45
Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
30 seconds of utc at all times |
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46
Atis broadcast
Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ils |
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47
Whenever atis is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the atis message shall be the responsability of
The air traffic services |
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48
Whenever atis is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
Immediately a significant change occurs |
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49
When on a rnp 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable rnp tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of :
22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and abov e fl200 |
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50
When on a rnp 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable rnp tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :
15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below fl 190 |
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51
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as :
Boarding prior to all passengers |
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52
Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below :
Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody |
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53
When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon :
Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft |
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54
Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. this programme should apply :
To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state |
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55
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft |
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56
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken
The state above question in incomplete. the pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed. |
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57
The atis broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
30 seconds |
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58
The ashtam provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. this information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. when volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above fl 250 or is expected to rise above fl 250, the level of alert colour code is
Red |
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59
Which one of the statements is correct :
Contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew |
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60
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a contracting state and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that state without security for customs duty.
For a period to be established by that state |
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61
In case of aircraft registered in other contracting states, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a contracting state or stopping for non traffic purposes, such contracting state shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. this information is to be received :
At least 2 hours in advance of arrival |
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62
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of general declaration, cargo manifest and stores list. the numbers of the copies are :
2 of each |
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63
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) :
The air waybill number. the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goods |
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64
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the aip
Enr |
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65
The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and air navigation services are on the following part of the aip
Gen |
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66
The contents of aeronautical information publication (aip) are :
Gen, enr (en-route) and ad (aerodromes) |
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67
A checklist of notam currently in force shall be issued at the aftn at intervals of :
Not more than one month |
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68
A checklist of aip supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of :
Not more than one month |
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69
Operationaly significant changes to the aip shall be published in accordance with :
Airac procedures and identified by the acronym airac |
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70
Temporary changes on specifications for aip supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as aip supplements. it is considered a long duration.
Three months or longer |
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71
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer |
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72
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by :
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters p. r and d and figures |
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73
An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
Aip, including amendment service. supplements to aip. notam and pre-flight information bulletin (pib). aic. checklists and summuries |
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74
The sigmet service, is in the aip, in the following part :
Gen |
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75
The icao annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is :
Annex 9 |
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76
The icao annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is :
Annex 9 |
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77
An air traffic control unit :
May ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs. |
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78
Regarding aerodrome flight information sercice (afis) :
It can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply atc services. |
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79
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. to indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must :
Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, twice. |
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80
The international civil aviation organisation (icao) establishes. chicago convention.
Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. |
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81
An airac is : procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures. |
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82
The international civil aviation organisation (i.c.a.o.) was established by the international convention of :
Chicago |
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83
An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. the pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an "x". this indicates :
Need medical assistance. |
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84
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. -aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the search and rescue centre -aircraft (2) is able to contact the search and rescue centre -aircraft (3) is a search and rescue helicopter the command of the situation is the responsibility of.
(1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3). |
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85
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
Air traffic control and flight information centers. |
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86
The transfer of an aircraft from one atc unit to another is done :
By agreement with the receiving unit. |
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87
Given: agl = above ground level amsl = above mean sea level fl = flight level within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in ifr must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
3 000 ft amsl or 1 000ft agl. |
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88
W hile taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. this signal means that the aircraft :
May continue to taxy towards the take-off area. |
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89
W hile taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. this signal means that the aircraft :
Must vacate the landing area in use. |
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90
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport"s circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. this signifies that the aircraft must :
Not land because the airport is not available for landing. |
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91
An ats airspace where ifr and vfr are permitted ifr flights are subject to air trafic control service and are separated from other ifr flights. all flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
Airspace e |
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92
Atis broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :
Below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater |
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93
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a "heavy" aircraft preceding a "light" aircraft
6 nm |
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94
The objectives of icao was ratified by the :
Chicago convention 1944 |
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95
The speed limitation for both ifr flights and vfr flights inside ats airspace classified as b, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) amls, is :
250 kt |
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96
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft :
Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg |
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97
An ats airspace where ifr and vfr are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
Airspace g |
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98
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
C to g (inclusive) |
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99
An ats airspace where ifr and vfr flights are permitted, all participating ifr flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
Airspace f |
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100
Where an upper flight information region (uir) is established, the procedures applicable there in :
Need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region |
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101
The vmc minima for a vfr flight inside an ats airspace classified as b, is :
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) amsl and clear of clouds |
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102
A vfr flight when flying inside an ats airspace classified as b has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) amsl and clear of clouds |
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103
A vfr flight when flying inside an ats airspace classified as c has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) amsl 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds |
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104
An ats airspace where ifr and vfr flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and ifr flights are separated from other ifr flights and from vfr flights vfr flights are separated from ifr flights and receive traffic information in respect of other vfr flights, is classified as :
Airspace c |
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105
An ats airspace where ifr and vfr flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
Airspace b |
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106
An ats airspace where ifr and vfr flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. ifr flights are separated from other ifr flights and receive traffic information in respect of vfr flights. vfr flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as :
Airspace d |
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107
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Inform the atc unit immediately |
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108
One of the main objectives of icao is to :
Develop principles and techniqe for international aviation |
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109
The "standards" contained in the annexes to the chicago convention are to be considered:
Binding for the member states that have not notified icao about a national difference |
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110
The temporary, long- term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows:
Aip supplements |
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111
The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
Airac |
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112
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special notam series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
Ashtam |
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113
Which information is not included in instrument appraoch charts (iac)
Any addition to minima the obstacle free area in the final approach |
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114
Aircraft "a" with an atc clearance is flying in vmc conditions within a control area. aircraft "b" with no atc clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. which has the right of way?
Aircraft "b" if "a" is on its left |
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115
The "aerodrome reference code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. these elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
2b. |
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116
W hile on ifr flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an atc clearance. what action must be taken?
The appropriate atc unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit |
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117
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist |
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118
According to the "aerodrome reference code", the "code letter e" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
52 m up to but not including 65 m. |
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119
Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
Code letter "c". |
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120
Clearway is defined rectangular area established to:
Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. |
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121
Toda take-off distance available is: (if provided).
The length of the take- off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). |
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122
Code letter d shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. the taxiway width shall be:
18 m. |
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123
An under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. the procedure to be followed is:
Land on the closest and continue flight onto destination |
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124
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
Not with standing any previous instructions, |
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125
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying ifr outside controlled airspace?
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft |
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126
(for this question use annex 010-9803a) what is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ?
Require medical assistance |
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127
(for this question use annex 010-9804a) the ground - air visual code illustrated means :
Require assistance |
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128
(for this question use annex 010-9806a) what is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ?
Operation completed |
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129
Which of the following is not an international distress frequency ?
2430 khz |
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130
The alerting service is provided by:
The ats unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment. |
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131
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. |
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132
The abbreviation papi stands for:
Precision approach path indicator. |
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133
The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
Aeronautical part |
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134
A radio communications, "distress" differs from "urgency" because in the first case:
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. |
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135
In the "aerodrome reference code" the code element 2 shall identify:
The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span. |
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136
What is the speed limit (ias) in airspace class e?
250 kt for ifr and vfr up to fl 100 |
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137
Within the annex to the icao convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for cat 1 ils. what should be the length of this approach light system?
900 metres |
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138
Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said:
The contracting states will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its departure is justified |
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139
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
Fixed lights showing green. |
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140
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a papi?
2. |
|
141
Asda (acceleration stop distance available) is:
The length of the take- off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) . |
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142
The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. |
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143
According with the "aerodrome reference code" the "code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
1 800 m and over. |
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144
In a precision approach category i lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white. |
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145
Aircraft wishing to conduct ifr flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ats unit providing that service. |
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146
Each contracting state shall provide an aeronautical information service (ais) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the air traffic services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
Integrated aeronautical information package. |
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147
Within the annex to the icao convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
45 metres |
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148
Instrument runways are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category i, ii and iii. |
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149
A notice providing information on rules of the air, air traffic services and air navigation procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
An airac. |
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150
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the ais of a state is called:
Aeronautical information circular (aic). |
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151
In which section of aip are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
Enr. |
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152
In which section of aip are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
Ad. |
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153
In which section of aip are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
Gen. |
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154
Alert phase is defined as follows:
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants. |
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155
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure. of the runway and taxiways.
This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case. |
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156
Except when a clearance is obtained from an atc unit, a vfr flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than :
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km |
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157
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
The commander |
|
158
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
Emergency aircraft |
|
159
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet msl and 9 000 feet msl outside controlled airspace under vfr, must remain on principle at least:
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds. 5 km visibility. |
|
160
The vmc minima for an airspace classified as "b" above 10 000 feet msl are :
Clear of clouds. 8 km visibility |
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161
The vmc minima for an airspace classified as "g" above 10 000 feet msl are :
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds. 8 km visibility. |
|
162
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate atc unit whenever the average true air speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
5% |
|
163
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with ssr transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ats unit, select one of the following code on mode "a"
7 700 |
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164
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
121.5 mhz - 243 mhz |
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165
Runway end lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway. |
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166
Ats airspaces where ifr and vfr flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Class b. |
|
167
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Control zone. |
|
168
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
Control area. |
|
169
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
Fixed red. |
|
170
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
Operational air traffic control centres |
|
171
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
Flashing white. |
|
172
In the "vasis" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
3. |
|
173
The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
Green colour identification given by morse code. |
|
174
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
Flashing white. |
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175
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights |
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176
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white. |
|
177
Aerodrome traffic is:
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. |
|
178
Runway threshold lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. |
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179
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
Flashing red or preferably yellow. |
|
180
Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Fixed showing blue. |
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181
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "l" and "r" - for 3 "l", and |
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182
In the "papi" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
On or close to the approach slope. |
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183
The "papi" shall consist of:
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. |
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184
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?
Can not |
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185
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
The airport is unsafe, do not land |
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186
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
Aircraft taking off or about to take off |
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187
The runway edge lights shall be :
White |
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188
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed. |
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189
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width. |
|
190
The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:
Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub- centres. |
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191
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
Descend |
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192
Control area (cta) is defined as follows:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth. |
|
193
In a precision approach category i, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
300 m. |
|
194
The approach control service is an air traffic control service
An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights. |
|
195
The units providing air traffic services are: tower and air traffic services reporting office.
Area control centre - flight information centre - approach control office - tower. |
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196
A control zone shall extend laterally to at least:
5 nautical miles from the centre of the or aerodromes aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. |
|
197
Flight information region (fir) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
Flight information service and alerting service. |
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198
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
The aerodrome shall be provided with a control tower. |
|
199
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic |
|
200
Air traffic service unit means:
Air traffic control units, flight information centers or air services reporting offices. |
|
201
Clearances will be issued by an atc unit for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between controlled flights |
|
202
You receive an ifr enroute clearance stating: clearence expires at 0920. what does it mean ?
If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued |
|
203
When are atis broadcasts updated ?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values |
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204
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed" ?
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. |
|
205
Area control centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between controlled flights |