ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
1 On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:

Upper strip of the pfd (primary flight display).
2 In case of accidental closing of an aircraft"s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter:

Overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.
3 Considering the maximum operational mach number (mmo) and the maximum operational speed (vmo), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. in order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. he will be limited :

Initially by the mmo, then by the vmo below a certain flight level
4 Mode "localizer arm" active on flight director means: line

System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center
5 If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not . and all other factors being equal...

At high speed, the non- compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude
6 Indication of mach number is obtained from:

Indicated speed and altitude using a speed an altimeter type aneroid
7 An air data computer (adc) :

Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments
8 In an air data computer (adc), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:

Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage
9 The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:

Time passed at a given altitude.
10 In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake :

Breaking the rate-of- climb indicator glass window
11 The essential components of a flight director are : 1- a computer 2- an automatic pilot 3- an autothrottle 4- command bars the combination of correct statements is :

1,4
12 Today"s airspeed indicators (calibrated to the saint-venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error :

The conventional airspeed (cas) in all cases
13 The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. the pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively :

(i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure
14 Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on :

Temperature.
15 The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:

Allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.
16 (for this question use annex 022-9768a) an aircraft is under guidance mode following a vor radial. from the adi and hsi information represented in the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is :

Experiencing a leftside wind.
17 (for this question use annex 022-9771a) the atmospheric pressure at fl 70 in a "standard + 10" atmosphere is:

781.85 hpa.
18 All the anemometers are calibrated according to:

St-venant" formula which takes into account the air compressibility.
19 The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

661 kt.
20 In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (cas) is :

Equal to the true airspeed (tas).
21 The qnh is by definition the value of the:

Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate altitude of the location for which it is given.
22 A vmo-mmo warning device consists of an alarm connected to :

A barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure.
23 When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :

Overread.
24 With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same :

Calibrated airspeed.
25 During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :

Increases steadily
26 The mach number is the:

True airspeed (tas) (eas) divided by the speed of sound
27 The principle of the mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio :

(pt - ps) to ps
28 The reading of a mach indicator is independent of :

The outside temperature
29 The calibrated airspeed (cas) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (ias) :

An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
30 The velocity maximum operating (v.m.o.) is a speed expressed in :

Calibrated airspeed (cas).
31 The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are :

Vso for the lower limit and vfe for the upper limit
32 The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are :

Vs1 for the lower limit and vno for the upper limit
33 The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are :

Vno for the lower limit and vne for the upper limit
34 During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (cas) :

The mach number increases and the true airspeed (tas) increases.
35 With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a :

Decreasing speed.
36 At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed :

+/-60 feet
37 After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed :

Decreases steadily
38 The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the:

Mach number of the aircraft
39 The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding :

In standard atmosphere, to the pressure ps prevailing at this point
40 The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a:

Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
41 The density altitude is :

The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere
42 On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:

Pressure altitude
43 The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is :

Lower than the real altitude.
44 The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:

Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages
45 Vle is the maximum :

Flight speed with landing gear down
46 Vlo is the maximum :

Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
47 Vne is the maximum speed :

Which must never be exceeded
48 Vno is the maximum speed :

Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
49 The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates :

- 500 ft/min.
50 The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are : 1. position/pressure error correction 2. hysteresis error correction 3. remote data transmission capability 4. capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a failure the combination of correct statements is :

1,3,4
51 The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is:

Higher than the real altitude.
52 For a constant calibrated airspeed (cas) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a:

Lower true airspeed (tas) due to an increase in air density
53 When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause, in isa conditions, the calibrated airspeed (cas) will:

Decrease
54 If the static source to an airspeed indicator (asi) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:

Over-read
55 If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will:

Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured
56 The primary factor which makes the servo- assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of:

An induction pick-off device
57 If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:

Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured
58 A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non- pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:

Under-read.
59 The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :

Total pressure.
60 The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. the pitot tube directly supplies:

The static pressure
61 If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40§c, the local speed of sound is :

596 kt.
62 The head up display (hud) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking outside, to have:

A synthetic view of the instrument procedure.
63 Flight director information supplied by an fd computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:

Adi attitude display indicator.
64 The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:

Position pressure error.
65 When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant calibrated airspeed (cas), the true airspeed (tas) will:

Decrease
66 Machmeter readings are subject to:

Position pressure error
67 At a constant mach number, the calibrated air speed (cas) :

Decreases when the altitude increases
68 At a constant calibrated airspeed (cas), the mach number :

Increases when the altitude increases
69 The mach number is :

The ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered
70 The use of the tcas (traffic collision avoidance system) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. tcas uses for its operation :

The replies from the transponders of other aircraft
71 Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or high) classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable : 1- bellows type 2- bourdon tube type 3- aneroid capsule type

3,1,2
72 The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and color marks. the blue line corresponds to the :

Optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or vy
73 The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer. this pointer indicates the:

Maximum speed in vmo operation versus altitude
74 A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to :

React like an altimeter.
75 Vfe is the maximum speed :

With the flaps extended in a given position.
76 A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s) :

Airspeed indicator only.
77 Given : - ts the static temperature (sat) - tt the total temperature (tat) - kr the recovery coefficient - m the mach number the total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula :

Tt = ts(1+0.2 môì)
78 A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures :

Absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.
79 If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably.

Leak in pressure gauge line.
80 The "bourdon tube" is used to measure :

Pressure.
81 The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined powerplant is:

An aneroid capsule.
82 The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is:

An aneroid capsule.
83 (for this question use annex 022-10217a) after having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your adi (attitude director indicator) are as represented in diagram n§1 of the appended annex. on this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and :

Increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.
84 The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:

Adi (attitude director indicator)
85 Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour:

Amber
86 An aeroplane is equipped with a flight director (with crosshair trend bars), heading 270§, in hdg mode (heading hold). a new heading, of 360§, is selected the vertical trend bar :

Deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director.
87 The altimeter is fed by :

Static pressure
88 The vertical speed indicator (vsi) by :

Static pressure
89 Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the :

Manifold pressure gauge.
90 In a modern airplane equipped with an ecam (electronic centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management system: 1- releases an aural warning 2- lights up the appropriate push- buttons on the overhead panel 3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display 4- processes the failure automatically the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3.
91 The flight director indicates the : distance.

Optimum instantaneous path to reach radial.
92 The position of a flight director command bars:

Indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.
93 When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with autopilot (ap) and auto-throttle (ats) systems the:

Indicated airspeed (ias) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
94 A "bourdon tube" is used in:

Pressure sensors
95 The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (vsi) is based on the measurement of the rate of change of:

Static pressure
96 (for this question use annex 022-11232a) after having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your adi (attitude director indicator) are as represented in diagram n§1 of the appended annex. on this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must :

Increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
97 For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight director computer takes into account: 1- track deviation 2- rate of track closure 3- rate of change of track closure 4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit the combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,2,3


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-06 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-09 PER Baleares 01
2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Andalucía

Examenes 2018

MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - País vasco
NOV 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
FEB 2018 - Alicante
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)

Examenes 2017

OCT 2017 - Castellón
ABR 2017 - Andalucía
ENE 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2016 - Alicante
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias

Examenes 2016

ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2016 - Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
NOV 2016 - País vasco
FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2016 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
FEB 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia

Examenes 2015

OCT 15 - Castellón
JUN 2015 - Cartagena
JUN 2015 - Andalucía
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
FEB 2015 - País vasco
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2015 - Asturias
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
OCT 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas encontradas
Preguntas más Repetidas

CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2021-07 CY Test 02
2022-12 CY Test 02
2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03
2021-13 CY Test 03

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2021-12 PER Test 05
2022-06 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03
2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 03

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-10 PERL Test 04
2021-07 PERL Test 02
2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations
10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE
21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD
22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
31.02 LOADING

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN
33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING
33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
50.05 PRECIPITATION

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02