ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION
22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD
1 The ground proximity w arning system (gpws) is a system working according to a height span ranging from :

50 ft to 2 500 ft
2 The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase ac generator, connected to rpm indicator, is :

A three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the rpm. the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer
3 The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an rpm indicator is :

An ac voltage, the frequency of which varies with the rpm. the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted
4 The transmitter of rpm indicator may consist of : 1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced ac voltage 2- a dc generator supplying a dc voltage 3- a single-phase ac generator supplying an ac voltage 4- a three-phase ac generator supplying a three-phase voltage the combination of correct statements is :

1,2,3,4
5 The ground proximity w arning system (gpws) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go- around :

Don"t sink repetitive only
6 The operation of the gpws (ground proximity warning system) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as : 1- the descent rate 2- the climb rate 3- the aircraft configuration 4- the selected engine rpm the combination of correct statements is :

1,3
7 The gpws calculator receives the following signals : 1 - vertical speed 2 - radio altimeter height 3 - pressure altitude 4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps position 6 - angle of attack the combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,2,4,5
8 A ground proximity warning system (gpws), when mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate :

At least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added
9 The gpws calculator is able to operate in the following modes : 1- excessive descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure 3- excessive angle of attack 4- too high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off 6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 7- excessive glidepath deviation the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,5,6,7
10 The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from: 1. magnetic masses 2. ferrous metal masses 3. non ferrous metal masses 4. electrical currents the combination of correct statements is:

1, 2, 4
11 A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:

Set several engines to the same speed.
12 The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the :

Necessity of providing a power supply source.
13 The rpm indicator tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc) in the rpm range corresponding to this small red arc the :

Propoller generates possible in continuous mode
14 In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

An apparent north.
15 During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

No apparent turn.
16 In the southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

An apparent turn to the north.
17 A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10§ba nk at a latitude of 50§north. using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :

030ô›
18 The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a :

Map showing the isogonal lines
19 The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:

Compass swinging curve
20 During deceleration following a landing in northerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

No apparent turn.
21 A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20§ba nk at a latitude of 40§north. using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on to an approximate heading of :

330ô›
22 A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20§ba nk at a latitude of 20§north. using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :

160ô›
23 A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20§ba nk at a latitude of 20§north. using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :

210ô›
24 The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of :

The soft iron pieces by the mild geomagnetic field
25 The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by using :

Soft iron pieces
26 In the southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

An apparent turn to the north.
27 In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

An apparent turn to the south.
28 The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass :

On any heading
29 Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:

In north seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading
30 A ground proximity w arning system (gpws) generates automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of: 1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain 2- a dangerous proximity to the ground 3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go- around 4- an abnormal flight attitude 5- an abnormal landing configuration 6- an abnormal deviation below ils glide slope the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
31 If the gpws (ground proximity warning system) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning sink" (twice times), it is because :

During take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose selected.
32 The disadvantages of a single-phase a.c. generator tachometer are: 1- the presence of spurious signals due to a d.c. generator commutator 2- the importance of line resistance on the information value 3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer information the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2.
33 The advantages of single-phase a.c. generator tachometer are: 1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a d.c. generator commutator 2- the importance of line resistance on the information value 3- the independence of the information in relation to the airborne electrical power supply 4- the ease of transmission of the information the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3.
34 The advantages of a d.c. generator tachometer are: 1- easy transmission of the information. 2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical power supply. 3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator. the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2.
35 The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:

A notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.
36 The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are: 1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance 2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power supply 3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations 4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a single transmitter the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 4.
37 If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its gpws (ground proximity warning system) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals :

Sink rate, sink rate followed by "whoop whoop pull up" (twice)
38 The gpws (ground proximity warning system) releases a warning in the following cases : 1- excessive rate of descent 2- excessive ground proximity rate 3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around 4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 5- excessive deviation under the glidepath 6- abnormal airbrakes configuration the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5
39 The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the egt (exhaust gas temperature) indicators:

Moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at maximum has been reached.
40 In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is:

Equal to 180§on a 090§heading in a right turn.
41 The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of:

Compass north and magnetic north.
42 The operating principle of the "induction" type of tachometer is to measure the: field.

Rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
43 The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure the: field.

Frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic
44 In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator : 1- the transmitter is a direct current generator 2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer 5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometer the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3, 5
45 The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs defined by attitude control laws such as : 1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources 2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability 3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed 4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3
46 Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible :

Deviation.
47 A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the earth"s magnetic field. 1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars 2- the primary coils are fed a.c. voltage (usually 487.5 hz) 3- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a directional gyro 4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis 5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5% which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

02/03/2005
48 An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045§. the isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0§. the compass deviation is o§. on a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error:

Is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045§.
49 When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic compass tends to "undershoot." when turning onto a southerly heading it tends to "overshoot": 1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere. 2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south. 3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the compass. 4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass. the correct statements are :

2 and 3.
50 The gpws (ground proximity warning system) is active for a height range from:

50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
51 On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the rpm indicator enables :

Control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller rpm.


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Andalucía
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-09 PER Baleares 01

Examenes 2018

JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
NOV 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
FEB 2018 - Alicante
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)

Examenes 2017

ENE 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias
OCT 2017 - Castellón
ABR 2017 - Andalucía

Examenes 2016

FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2016 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
FEB 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia
NOV 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
NOV 2016 - País vasco

Examenes 2015

JUN 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
FEB 2015 - País vasco
MAY 2015 - Asturias
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2015 - País vasco
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)
OCT 15 - Castellón
JUN 2015 - Cartagena

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas encontradas
Preguntas más Repetidas

CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03
2021-13 CY Test 03
2021-07 CY Test 02
2022-12 CY Test 02

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03
2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 05
2022-06 PER Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04
2021-10 PERL Test 04
2021-07 PERL Test 02

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management
10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS
21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
31.02 LOADING

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING
33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
50.05 PRECIPITATION

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01