ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
1 In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:

Keyboard
2 In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:

Screen unit
3 In computer technology, an eprom is: 1. a read-only memory 2. a write memory 3. erases its content when power supply is cut off 4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,4
4 In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:

Hard disk drive
5 In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire- extinguisher must be conveniently located containing :

Halon.
6 In accordance with jar-ops 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency descend is:

10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 ft, whichever is the greater.
7 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least:

5 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
8 In accordance with jar-ops 1, during and following an emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of oxygen in: 1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft. 2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. 3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft. 4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft. the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3 et 4.
9 In accordance with jar-ops 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than:

1,83 m.
10 In accordance with jar-ops 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a:

Crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment.
11 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least:

3 halon 1211 fire- extinguishers.
12 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:

8 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
13 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least:

6 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
14 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least:

4 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
15 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least:

3 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
16 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:

2 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
17 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:

1 hand fire- extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
18 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least:

7 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
19 The reason for having a low pressure fuel- cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to:

Cool the oil and heat the fuel.
20 A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. it may be caused by:

An attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter.
21 For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the engine :

Will run without any external assistance.
22 The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is :

Sand.
23 Because of the input/output relationship of an and gate, it is often referred to as the :

All or nothing gate.
24 (for this question use annex 021- 6660a) the logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) :

An invert or not gate.
25 Because of the input/output relationship of an or gate, it is often referred to as the :

Any or all gate.
26 An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by

Centrifugal force
27 Generally, when the fire handle of the fire- extinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are : 1. closing of the lp valve of the fuel system 2. opening of the air bleed valves and hp valves on the engine concerned 3. setting of extinguishing systems 4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves 5. isolation of the associated electric current generators 6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,3,4,5
28 (for this question use annex 021-9377a) when fire is detected on engine n�? 2, the fire shutoff handle n�? 2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n�? 1 is discharged. this results in :

The discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n�? 1 and illumination of the disch (discharge) indicator lamp
29 An engine pressure ratio (epr) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:

Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
30 In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of:

Fuel supplied.
31 The function of a not logic gate within a circuit is to :

Invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.
32 The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is:

Freon.
33 If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire. the following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting:

Bcf and co2 type extinguishers
34 The pressure usually produced by the boost pumps (bp) of the fuel supply system is within the following range:

20 to 50 psi
35 In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:

Jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks.
36 The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to: increases.

Maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude
37 The engine pressure ratio (epr) is the ratio of:

The total turbine outlet pressure to the total pressure.
38 In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal oil pressure. this higher pressure :

Is normal, if it decreases after startup.
39 The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by: - a propeller control lever used to select: 1 - propeller rpm 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine rpm - a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller rpm 5 - torque 6 - turbine temperature the combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

01/05/2006
40 The main feature of bcf fire extinguishers is that they : subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4 4 france with engine fire alarm is automatic and is automatic after a does not need the is the pilot"s task 0 0 0 -1 delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine 1 france from the cruise, with all remain the same increase or decrease, increase decrease 0 0 -1 0 altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: 1 france with a piston engine, reduce manifold reduce manifold increase manifold increase manifold -1 0 0 0 pressure and lean the 1 france a piston engine may provided that the grade never provided that it is an provided that the grade 0 0 0 -1 grade than the recommended: 3 france using compressor has no influence on increases aircraft is limited to the phases decreases aircraft 0 0 0 -1 performance systems:

Act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air"s oxygen. pressure and lean the mixture aeronautical petrol performance
41 The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the:

Flash point
42 The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is :

To withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence
43 (for this question use annex 021-4008a) reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in annex. in flight, with center tank empty and apu operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2). rebalancing of the two tanks is:

Possible with "crossfeed" open and tank 1 pumps "off" and tank 2 pumps "on".
44 Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the engine pressure ratio (epr): 1. with a constant epr, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases 2. with a constant epr, the thrust is independent of the mach number 3. at same environmental conditions, a given epr setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing. 4. the epr is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet 5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated epr is lower than the real epr the combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1, 3.


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-06 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-09 PER Baleares 01
2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Andalucía

Examenes 2018

MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - País vasco
NOV 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
FEB 2018 - Alicante
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)

Examenes 2017

OCT 2017 - Castellón
ABR 2017 - Andalucía
ENE 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2016 - Alicante
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias

Examenes 2016

ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2016 - Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
NOV 2016 - País vasco
FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2016 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
FEB 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia

Examenes 2015

OCT 15 - Castellón
JUN 2015 - Cartagena
JUN 2015 - Andalucía
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
FEB 2015 - País vasco
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2015 - Asturias
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
OCT 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas encontradas
Preguntas más Repetidas

CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2021-07 CY Test 02
2022-12 CY Test 02
2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03
2021-13 CY Test 03

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2021-12 PER Test 05
2022-06 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03
2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 03

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-10 PERL Test 04
2021-07 PERL Test 02
2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations
10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE
21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD
22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
31.02 LOADING

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN
33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING
33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
50.05 PRECIPITATION

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02