ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY
50.02 WIND
1 The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is :

Increasing surface wind speed.
2 The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the

Centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
3 What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog? the range

Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills.
4 Where, during a flight from marseille to dakar, in july, may the itcz be encountered?

In the vicinity of dakar
5 Which wind systems converge on the itcz, when it lies at the equator?

Se trade winds and ne trade winds
6 An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. what direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from ?

From the left and slightly on the nose
7 The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because the

Centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
8 (for this question use annex 050-2422a) which of the following symbols represents a tropical revolving storm?

Symbol a)
9 (for this question use annex 050-2421a) which of the following symbols represents a squall line?

Symbol a)
10 Which weather chart icing and the height of the freezing level ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Significant weather
11 An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at fl 270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. a jet stream is forecast to be at fl 310. the shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by :

Descending
12 When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the

Stability increases in the layer
13 If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest ?

12000 feet
14 Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15° c and dew point of 12° c blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5° c ?

Advection fog
15 What characterizes a stationary front ?

The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
16 How are the air masses occlusion ? is behind the behind the occlusion. front of the occlusion. cold air in front of the level. level.

The coldest air mass and the warm air in the less cold air mass is above ground level.
17 In the lower part of the

Is almost constant
18 In an air mass with no

Stable clouds the surface temperature is 15° c and 13° c this layer of air is:
19 A layer can be

Stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air
20 A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. in spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. what are your precautionary measures?

Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.
21 What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ?

Cumulus and cumulonimbus
22 What the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (itcz) ?

Trade winds.
23 What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?

Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.
24 What characteristic is

Stability
25 A frontal depression

Continuous rain or about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. within the warm sector the rain increases. improvement on the passage of the cold front.
26 What types of cloud will a warm front ? later at some 250 km 300 km ns until the the front ns begin 80 km before the front thickening as front cb

At some 800 km cs, the front, groups of cb,
27 The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is

Clear and winds are weak
28 The radiation of the sun heats

The surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
29 Subsidence is :

Vertically downwards motion of air
30 Advection is :

Horizontal motion of air
31 Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

In the warm sector
32 (for this question use annex 050- 2539a) the front labelled "z" is a:

W arm front
33 The dry adiabatic lapse rate than in winter night than during the value day

Has a constant fixed
34 An air mass is called stable when

The vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
35 An inversion is a layer of air which is

Absolutely stable
36 Around paris on january 3rd at 1800 utc, the surface temperature, under shelter, is 3° c. the sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. qnh is 1033 hpa. if the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of january 3rd to january 4th should be

Slightly below +3° c.
37 On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately

Half an hour after sunrise
38 From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?

Stratus.
39 In which month does the humid monsoon in india start?

In june.
40 What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid cat effects?

Change of flight level.
41 The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

1° c/100m
42 The environmental atmosphere

Varies with time 2° c/1000 ft
43 An inversion is a layer

Increases with height more than 1° c/100m
44 An isothermal layer is a

Remains constant with a constant rate
45 During july flights from bangkok (13° n - 100° e) to karachi (25° n - 67° e) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. in january the same flights, also operating at fl 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. what is the reason for this difference?

The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system.
46 A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of

Nocturnal radiation
47 An inversion is

An increase of temperature with height
48 From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?

Environmental lapse rate
49 A super-cooled droplet is one that

Remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
50 Freezing fog consists of

Supercooled water droplets
51 Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?

A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground sinking air mass
52 Freezing rain occurs when

Rain falls into a layer of above-freezing layer of below 0° c
53 Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at fl180 in the northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant ?

There is no cross wind
54 W hilst flying at fl 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. what effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft"s true altitude ?

It decreases
55 Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?

Cold air moving over warm water
56 What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

Cb
57 Along the west coast of india the prevailing winds are the

Sw monsoon in july and a ne monsoon in january
58 Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?

They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans
59 An isohypse of the 500 hpa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. this means that for all points on the isohypse the

Topography is 552 decameters above msl
60 In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2° c per 100 m increase in altitude. this temperature change is called:

Environmental lapse rate
61 Large hail stones

Are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
62 What information is given on a significant w eather chart?

The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
63 The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of africa north of the equator (gulf of guinea) is a subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Sw monsoon in summer and ne tradewind in winter
64 An easterly wave is a

Wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of india, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
65 Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true?

It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in july and totally in the southern hemisphere in
66 The transition from sw to ne monsoon in india occurs in

July, august, september
67 A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is

Quasi stationary/situated between 50° n and between 50° n and 70° n 70° n/a cold anticyclone
68 Freezing precipitation occurs

Mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
69 Supercooled droplets can be encountered

At any time of the year
70 Supercooled droplets are always

At a temperature below freezing
71 Supercooled droplets can occur in

Clouds, fog and precipitation
72 Several physical

Convection and evaporation.
73 A layer is conditionally

Is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.
74 The temperature at fl 140 is -12° c. what will the temperature be at fl 110 if the icao standard lapse rate is applied ?

-6° c.
75 Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion ?

Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
76 At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hpa chart is -48° c. according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at fl 330. what is the most likely temperature at fl 350 ?

-54° c.
77 Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog ?

Moist warm air moving over a cold surface
78 The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above fl 250) is mainly of the type clear air turbulence. in what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?

The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. for the passengers the flight will be unpleasant.
79 A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. surface wind is 270/05. an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. the wind just above the inversion is 090/30. what is the safest departure procedure ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind.
80 What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of india its greatest proportion of precipitation?

South-west monsoon.
81 Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the itcz in the region of west africa?

It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° n in july
82 How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ?

The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots.
83 What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over central europe in the summer ?

Fair weather cu
84 How do air masses subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

W arm air overrides a cold air mass
85 What is the relative movement of the two airmasses along a cold front ?

Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
86 Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
87 When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in europe?

Summer
88 In which main direction does a polar front depression move?

Along the front towards the east
89 (for this question use annex 050-2388a) what change in pressure, will occur at point a, during the next hour? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

A rise in pressure
90 How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ? flying through relatively warm but humid air

Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
91 What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?

Showers associated with thunderstorms
92 (for this question use annex 050-2058a) what does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?

The center of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is at fl 400.
93 What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?

Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure.
94 In which meteorological forecast chart is information about cat regions found? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Significant weather chart.
95 On which of the

Significant weather chart.
96 How are well separated cb clouds described on the significant w eather chart?

Ocnl cb.
97 If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a

Warm high
98 (for this question use annex 050-2060a) which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left ?

Track d-a
99 (for this question use annex 050-2064a) refer to the diagram. assuming the usual direction of movement, where will this polar frontal wave have moved ?

Position 3
100 The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at fl 50. at what fl would you expect a temperature of -6° c?

Fl 80
101 Which of the following

Low cloud base and surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms.
102 What are the surface.

Radiation fog forms by surface cooling in a calm wind. advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea.
103 What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

-75° c.
104 In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at fl 100? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

W ind from the right.
105 With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?

Cumulonimbus.
106 At what time of day, or

Shortly after sunrise.
107 What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

500 ft.
108 When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?

When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air.
109 What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature is 15° c and the dew point is 14° c?

Calm.
110 Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?

Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
111 The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called

Subsidence inversion
112 The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :

Below 5 kt
113 During a cross-country flight at fl 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: nimbostratus, altostratus, cirrostratus, cirrus. which of the following are you most likely to encounter ?

Decreasing temperatures.
114 Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Ns.
115 What characteristics

Strong and flowing to the isobars.
116 Which forces are

Pressure gradient balanced with geostrophic winds?
117 How does moderate

Changes in altitude or environment will result in structural damage.
118 What type of fronts are present during the winter in central europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0° c, and freezing rain starts to fall?

W arm fronts, warm
119 In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?

Calm winds, haze.
120 At what time of the year, are the paths of north atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position?

W inter.
121 What is the correct

Subsidence.
122 What weather is

Thunderstorms and
123 What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the indian sub-continent ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
124 What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?

Sinking air
125 In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in january, between dakar and rio de janeiro?

0° - 7° n.
126 What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass?

Nimbostratus.
127 The approximate

1/150
128 What type of low associated with a surface front? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Polar front low.
129 In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?

In the direction of the warm sector isobars.
130 Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?

Behind the front.
131 What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?

Cold front.
132 Over central europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?

St with drizzle.
133 What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the north sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?

Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.
134 What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter?

A tendency for fog and low st.
135 Which one of the (itcz) is correct?

Following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone
136 Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

Solid direct to vapour
137 What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in india?

Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.
138 After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?

A veering in the wind direction.
139 When are the rainy seasons in equatorial africa?

March to may and october to november.
140 Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ?

The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the
141 What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer?

Moderate (several km).
142 Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are

Straight lines and no friction is involved.
143 Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?

W arm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0° c.
144 The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by

Curvature of isobars
145 The geostrophic wind depends on

Density, earth"s rotation, geographic latitude
146 Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in

Falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
147 The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being the same)

Higher if curvature is anticyclonic
148 The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because

The coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
149 You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hpa pressure surface. which of the following statements is correct?

If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
150 In an area of converging air

Clouds can be formed
151 W ind is caused by

Horizontal pressure differences
152 Advection fog can be formed when

Warm moist air flows over a colder surface
153 In a warm front occlusion

The warm air is lifted
154 Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?

Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
155 Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?

It can be formed suddenly by day or night
156 Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air

With cold mass properties
157 The greater the pressure gradient the

Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
158 The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce

Radiation fog
159 When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be

Fog or low cloud
160 An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is moving from west to east. the centre of the depression passes to the south of the observer. for this observer the wind direction is

Continuously backing
161 In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by

Frictional forces
162 Geostrophic wind

Is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
163 The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the

Horizontal pressure gradient
164 Frontal fog is most likely to occur subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

In advance of a warm front
165 When water evaporates

Heat is absorbed decreased
166 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 ft pressure level (fl50)?

850 hpa.
167 An outside air temperature of -35° c is measured while cruising at fl 200. what is the temperature deviation from the isa at this level?

5° c colder than isa.
168 Convective activity over

Summer in the
169 Absolute instability

Exceeds the dry exists whenever the environmental lapse rate
170 The polar front is the boundary between: air. continental polar air.

Polar air and tropical air.
171 Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from

Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
172 Which of the following is a common result of subsidence ?

An inversion over a large area with haze, mist.
173 Clouds, fog or dew will

Water vapour always be formed when:
174 Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from

Convective clouds
175 A super-cooled droplet is

A droplet still in liquid been frozen during its below freezing
176 The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the

Saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
177 Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it

Is heated by compression
178 The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by

Subsidence
179 When isobars, for an area in the mid- latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be

Strong
180 The process by which

Sublimation
181 Which is true of the

It is higher in polar difference with change of latitude
182 In zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken: 160450z 23015kt 3000 +ra sct008 sct020 ovc030 13/12 q1010 nosig = 160650z 25008kt 6000 sct040 bkn090 18/14 q1010 rera nosig = 160850z 25006kt 8000 sct040 sct100 19/15 q1009 nosig = 161050z 24008kt 9999 sct040 sct100 21/15 q1008 nosig = 161250z 23012kt cavok 23/16 q1005 nosig = 161450z 23016kt 9999 sct040 bkn090 24/17 q1003 becmg 25020g40kt ts = 161650z 24018g35kt 3000 +tsra sct006 bkn015cb 18/16 q1002 nosig = 161850z 28012kt 9999 sct030 sct100 13/11 q1005 nosig = what do you conclude based on these observations? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoon
183 (for this question use annex 050-4389a) this chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 utc on may 4. which of the following reports reflects weather development at geneva airport?

Taf lsgg 230716 23016kt 8000 -ra bkn030 ovc070 becmg 0810 5000 ra bkn020 ovc050 tempo 3000 +ra bkn010 ovc030 becmg 1215 25014kt 8000
184 (for this question use annex 050-10797a) the dotted line designated "z" represents the

Mean position of the intertropical front (itcz) during july
185 (for this question use annex 050-10798a) the dotted line labelled "y" represents the

Mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (itcz) during january
186 Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is

Greater than the geostrophic wind
187 For the same pressure gradient at 60° n, 50° n and 40° n the speed of the geostrophic wind will be

Greatest at 40° n
188 For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be

Greater at 30° n than at 60° n
189 The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Cirrus
190 The following ns cloud:

Precipitation may be are usually nil. turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
191 Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

The warm air is convectively unstable.
192 What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?

Inversion
193 How would you characterise an air temperature of -55° c at the 200 hpa level over western europe?

Within +/-5° c of isa
194 How would you characterise an air temperature of -30° c at the 300 hpa level over western europe?

High
195 How would you characterise an air temperature of -15° c at the 700 hpa level over western europe?

Low
196 A temperature of +15° c is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. if the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?

+2° c
197 The temperature at fl 160 is -22° c. what will the temperature be at fl 90 if the icao standard lapse rate is applied ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-8° c
198 The temperature at fl 110 is -5° c. what will the temperature be at fl 50 if the icao standard lapse rate is applied ?

+7° c
199 The temperature at fl 80 is +6° c. what will the temperature be at fl 130 if the icao standard lapse rate is applied ?

-4° c
200 (for this question use annex 050-10801a) w eather conditions at bombay during january are mainly influenced by the

Ne monsoon
201 (for this question use

Ne monsoon and the
202 (for this question use approach to dakar during july? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

W et and thundery due to the rising sand of the harmattan
203 (for this question use annex 050-4333a) which of the following best describes zone a?

Trough of low pressure
204 When planning a flight at fl 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

700 hpa
205 When planning a flight at fl 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?

850 hpa
206 If you are planning a flight at fl 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ?

300 hpa
207 If you are planning a flight at fl 170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ?

500 hpa
208 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 38662 ft pressure level (fl 390) ?

200 hpa
209 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30065 ft pressure level (fl 300)?

300 hpa
210 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 18289 ft pressure level (fl 180) ?

500 hpa
211 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 9882 ft pressure level (fl 100) ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

700 hpa
212 (for this question use annex 050-4335a) which of the following best describes zone c?

Ridge of high pressure
213 (for this question use annex 050-4336a) which of the following best describes zone d?

Depression
214 In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air

Behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitude.
215 The intertropical convergence zone (itcz) particularly affects

Western africa between 10° and 20° n and the northern coasts of the parallels, depending on
216 On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching

Qfe and qnh decrease.
217 (for this question use annex 050-4334a) which of the following best describes zone b?

Col
218 (for this question use annex 050-4298a) refer to the diagram. assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave have moved ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Position c
219 (for this question use annex 050-4340a) according to icao, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?

Symbol c)
220 (for this question use annex 050-4338a) according to icao, which symbol indicates a tropical revolving storm?

Symbol d)
221 (for this question use annex 050-4337a) according to icao, which symbol indicates severe icing ?

Symbol a)
222 An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. in which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure ?

In front.
223 Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?

In the transition zone between two air masses
224 The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hpa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

34 000 ft
225 (for this question use annex 050-4297a) examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?

Track b-d
226 Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?

Mainly towering clouds
227 What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

It will first increase then decrease.
228 What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?

It will be increasing.
229 What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front ?

It will have decreased.
230 Read this description: "after such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the weather today. and, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. the clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey. but at least it has become a little bit warmer." which of these weather phenomena is being described?

A warm front
231 With what type of cloud is "+tsra" precipitation most commonly associated?

Cb
232 With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Sc, as
233 Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?

Ci
234 With what type of cloud is "dz" precipitation most commonly associated?

St
235 With what type of cloud is "gr" precipitation most commonly associated?

Cb
236 With which of the following types of cloud is "+ra" precipitation most commonly associated?

Ns
237 Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?

Little or no cloud
238 (for this question use annex 050-4339a) according to icao, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?

Symbol b)
239 Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?

Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
240 The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the

Intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
241 The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

Freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-09 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-03 PER Andalucía
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-06 PER Baleares 02

Examenes 2018

ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - País vasco
NOV 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
FEB 2018 - Alicante
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)

Examenes 2017

ABR 2017 - Andalucía
ENE 2017 - País vasco
NOV 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
MAY 2017 - País vasco
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias
OCT 2017 - Castellón

Examenes 2016

NOV 2016 - País vasco
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
ENE 2016 - Asturias
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2016 - País vasco
FEB 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia
ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2016 - Andalucía

Examenes 2015

JUN 2015 - Cartagena
JUN 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
FEB 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2015 - Asturias
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2015 - País vasco
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)
OCT 15 - Castellón

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas encontradas
Preguntas más Repetidas

CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2022-12 CY Test 02
2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03
2021-13 CY Test 03
2021-07 CY Test 02

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2022-06 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03
2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 05

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-07 PERL Test 02
2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04
2021-10 PERL Test 04

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations
10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS
21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE
21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD
22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.02 LOADING
31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN
33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.05 PRECIPITATION
50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02