ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY
50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
1 The cloud base, reported in the metar, is the height above

Airfield level
2 The troposphere

Has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
3 What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?

Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
4 What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?

21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
5 The wind direction in a metar is measured relative to

True north
6 Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :

Large supercooled water drops
7 Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a cb?

Between -2° c and - 15° c
8 The thickness of the

Latitude
9 The troposphere is the

Part of the atmosphere stratosphere and the thermosphere
10 The tropopause is a height

Temperature ceases to level at which
11 Relative humidity depends on

Moisture content and temperature of the air
12 The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in

Dry air
13 Rime ice forms through aircraft surfaces of

Small supercooled the freezing onto
14 How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/agl, when he is unable to deice, nor land?

He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
15 Rising air cools because

It expands
16 In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

11 to 50 km
17 The tropopause is lower

Over the north pole than over the equator
18 Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between

Actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
19 On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5° c. the freezing level is at 3000 ft/agl. at 4000 ft/agl, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling. according to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. w ould you expect icing? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Yes, between ground level and 3000 ft/agl.
20 Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile : 3000 ft +15° c 6000 ft +8° c 10000 ft +1° c 14000 ft -6° c 18000 ft -14° c 24000 ft -26° c at which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?

Fl 150
21 At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?

50° n.
22 What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ?

W ater vapour
23 The average height of

11 km the tropopause at 50° n is about
24 The height and the tropopause are respectively in the order of

16 km and -75° c over the poles
25 The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5° c is most likely to be

Clear ice
26 Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an aircraft, form

Clear ice
27 Clear ice forms as a result of

Supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
28 An airmass is stable when weaker and disappears.

The vertical motion of a per 100 m tends to become
29 An airmass is unstable when

An ascending parcel of considerable height.
30 Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of

Water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
31 Clear ice is dangerous because it

Is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
32 How does freezing rain develop?

Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0° c
33 Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are

Small and at a temperature just below freezing
34 A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile

Intersects the 0° c isotherm twice
35 What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?

Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m. nil icing.
36 During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze

Rapidly and do not spread out
37 Fallstreaks or virga are

Water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
38 When is the rvr reported at most airports? m.

When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500
39 In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?

Troposphere.
40 How does the height of

It decreases from south throughout the year.
41 What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region ?

Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but
42 The reason for the fact, that the icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that

The temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater
43 What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?

16 km
44 A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely

Freeze immediately and create rime ice.
45 W hile descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. this contamination is called:

Rime ice.
46 Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (s), and the other with a thick profile (t), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. the cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion ?

Aircraft s experiences more icing than t.
47 Hoar frost is most likely to form when

Taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion.
48 Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft ?

Cloud temperature and droplet size
49 Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct ?

A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing
50 A winter day in northern europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero degrees c at ground level, you can expect:

A high probability for icing in clouds. severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large droplets.
51 Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets?

Altocumulus and altostratus.
52 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "bkn"?

5 - 7 oktas.
53 What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread ns, as and st cloud coverage?

Lifting
54 Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?

St
55 In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?

In nimbostratus cloud
56 (for this question use annex 050-2065a) what is the classification of the airmass affecting position "q" at 0600 utc?

Tropical maritime.
57 Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
58 Where does polar continental air originate? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Siberian landmass.
59 Where is the source of summer?

The southern balkan tropical continental air that affects europe in
60 In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Polar continental air.
61 What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in the azores and an air mass with its origin over northern russia ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

The air of the azores is warmer and more humid than the north- russian air.
62 Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?

Nimbostratus.
63 Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?

Drizzle.
64 Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?

Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate
65 Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of cu and cb clouds?

Convection.
66 What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
67 Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?

Cu, cb.
68 Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions ? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

As, ac.
69 (for this question use annex 050-1914a) which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?

3.
70 A plain in western elevation of 500 m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform ac layer of cloud during the summer months. at what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

15000 - 25000 ft above the terrain.
71 What is the main

Ice crystals.
72 What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis.) and rvr in homogeneous fog?

The met. vis. is generally less than the rvr.
73 The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. where is this instrument placed?

On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
74 Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?

Cumulonimbus
75 Runway visual range (rvr) is

Usually better than meteorological visibility
76 Freezing fog exists if fog droplets

Are supercooled
77 What does dewpoint mean? which a mass of air which ice melts. (danger of icing). which the relative

The temperature to
78 What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

Tropopause.
79 Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ?

Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing
80 The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. how is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?

It increases with increasing water vapour.
81 How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated airmass influenced by temperature changes?

It decreases with increasing temperature.
82 How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?

When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains constant.
83 When a given mass of effect will it have on relative humidity? afternoon an air temperature of +12° c and a dew point of +5° c were measured. what temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation?

It decreases. +6° c.
84 Clouds, classified as

The surface to 6500 ft
85 The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the

Presence of mountain waves
86 The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates

Instability in the middle troposphere
87 What type of cloud is being described ? a generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. when the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.

Stratus
88 Cumulus clouds are an indication for

Up and downdrafts
89 Which of the following are medium level clouds ?

Altostratus and altocumulus
90 Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of

Instability in the atmosphere
91 A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer contains

A combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets
92 Altostratus clouds are classified as

Medium level clouds
93 Convective clouds are formed

In unstable atmosphere
94 The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the

Air temperature
95 In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. the vertical extent of these clouds depends on the

Thickness of the unstable layer
96 Dew point is defined as

The lowest temperature which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure
97 Considering the north atlantic region between 30° n and 65°n together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is

Azores, siberia
98 Considering the north atlantic region between 30° n and 65° n and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are

Azores high and weak low over ne canada
99 Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the north atlantic region between 30° n and 65°n. during winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over

Iceland / greenland
100 In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the north atlantic region between 30° n and 65° n and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?

Azores, se usa, sw europe
101 (for this question use of the route indicated from 30° e to 50° e, the upper winds in january above fl 300 are most likely to be

A subtropical westerly
102 Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?

Lower stratosphere
103 What are the images of satellites provided daily by the service used for?

To locate fronts in areas with few weather
104 When will the surface wind in a metar record a gust factor ?

When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
105 At what degree of icing can icao"s "no change of course and altitude necessary" recommendation be followed?

Light
106 At what degree of icing should icao"s "change course and/or altitude immediately" instruction be followed?

Severe
107 At what degree of icing should icao"s "change of course and/or altitude desirable" recommendation be followed? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Moderate
108 (for this question use annex 050-4314a) continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned? 1 switzerl which of the following pe +fzra gr shsn 0 -1 0 0 conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ? 1 switzerl in which of these cloud ns cs as sc 0 -1 0 0 types can icing be virtually ruled out? 1 switzerl in which of these cloud cu ci sc ns 0 -1 0 0 types can icing be virtually ruled out?

Diagram d)
109 In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft"s surface?

0° c to -10° c
110 You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. the outside air temperature is -25° c. which of the following statements is true? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
111 Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?

Hail
112 Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause

Decreases and its temperature increases
113 What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

20 m/sec
114 What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?

50 kt
115 What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

45 km/h
116 An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of hail

Zones of precipitation, particulary liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity
117 W hile approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message: rvr runway 23: 400m this information indicates the

Length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.
118 Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ?

As
119 Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Ci
120 A plain in western europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform cc layer of cloud during the summer months. at what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

15000 - 35000 ft above the terrain
121 A plain in western europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform sc layer of cloud during the summer months. at what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

1500 - 7000 ft above ground
122 Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels ?

Cb
123 Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?

St, as
124 Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?

It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air the air temperature is
125 In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion ?

Freezing rain.


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Andalucía
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-09 PER Baleares 01

Examenes 2018

JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
NOV 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
FEB 2018 - Alicante
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)

Examenes 2017

ENE 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias
OCT 2017 - Castellón
ABR 2017 - Andalucía

Examenes 2016

FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2016 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
FEB 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia
NOV 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
NOV 2016 - País vasco

Examenes 2015

JUN 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
FEB 2015 - País vasco
MAY 2015 - Asturias
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2015 - País vasco
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)
OCT 15 - Castellón
JUN 2015 - Cartagena

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas encontradas
Preguntas más Repetidas

CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03
2021-13 CY Test 03
2021-07 CY Test 02
2022-12 CY Test 02

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03
2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 05
2022-06 PER Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04
2021-10 PERL Test 04
2021-07 PERL Test 02

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management
10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS
21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
31.02 LOADING

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING
33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
50.05 PRECIPITATION

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01