ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
1 Change from ifr to vfr will always take place :

On the initiative of the aircraft commander
2 In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

2 minutes
3 When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ils localizer course or mls final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ils localizer course or mls final approach track in level flight for :

At least 2.0 nm prior to intercepting the ils glide path or specified mls elevation angle
4 What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying ifr below flight level 290?

1000 feet
5 A special air report comprises a number of sections. in section i the pilot fills in :

A position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time .
6 Which statement is correct ? during a "visual approach" in controlled airspace (classe c):

Atc will apply separation traffic
7 During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed- approach instruction, in case the "tower- controller" has not issued a "landing- clearance" at the moment the aircraft is :

2 nm from touch-down.
8 In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?

Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
9 The air traffic control unit has reported "radar contact", what does that mean to the pilot?

The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
10 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be

10 minutes
11 Repetitive flight plans (rpl"s) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and :

On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
12 Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by :

At least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
13 Special vfr flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class :

E airspace
14 A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ils localizer course and/or mls final approach track. this minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

300 m (1000 ft)
15 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft and between a light aircraft and a medium aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by :

Less than 760 m
16 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft and between a light aircraft and a medium aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :

2 minutes
17 A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ils localizer course and/or mls final approach track. this minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

3.0 nm
18 Independent approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that :

Parallel track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
19 When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ils localizer course or mls final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ils localizer course or mls final approach track at an angle not greater than :

30 degrees
20 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (ntz) of at least :

610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
21 What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

2 minutes
22 Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. identification has to be achieved within :

1nm
23 Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?

If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an expected approach time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
24 Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than :

2,5 nm
25 Turning departures provide track guidance within :

10 km
26 Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by atc. these adjustments shall never be more than :

20 knots and not within 4 nm of threshold
27 A braking action given by ats of 0.25 and below is :

Poor
28 When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is impossible, than :

Departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
29 An approaching aircraft may descent below the msa if :

All mentioned answers are correct
30 A so called "visual approach" can be performed :

During ifr flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground.
31 We can distinguish two types of departure routes. during a straight departure the initial departure track is within :

15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
32 The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called :

Composite separation
33 Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? aircraft on the movement area.

An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of atc, will be cleared to land if this is desirable .
34 The eat has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is :

5 minutes or more.
35 If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
36 In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

The terrain surrounding the airport.
37 In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

0 ft.
38 In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within:

15° .
39 An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the ssr mode c derived level information indicated that it is within:

+/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
40 A vfr flight constitutes essential traffic to other vfr flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified as:

B.
41 One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:

45° immediately after take-off.
42 Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if on the same track, when:

The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
43 When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:

30 degrees.
44 The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:

3 nm.
45 The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:

3.0 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course.
46 The tolerance value used to determine that mode c derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:

+/- 300 ft.
47 The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ats authorities may specify a smaller criterion):

+/- 300 ft.
48 An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the ssr mode c derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:

More than 300 ft.
49 The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:

3.0 nm.
50 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ats authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:

8 nm.
51 An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:

2 nm.
52 When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ats authority, at a distance of:

2 nm from touchdown.
53 The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:

4 nm from the threshold on final approach.
54 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ats authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:

5.0 nm.
55 A "rnav" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way- point. this minimum is:

80 nm.
56 The longitudinal separation minima based on dme, and each aircraft uses dme stations, is:

10 nm provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true "on track" more faster than the succeding aircraft.
57 The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from atc. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an atc instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

03-may
58 The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a vfr flight plan is the estimated time :

Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
59 The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. this speed is the:

True air speed (tas).
60 For an ifr flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:

Will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
61 Cruising level ifr during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (fl)

Above the transition altitude when applicable
62 Changing of flight rules from ifr to vfr is possible

If the commander so requests
63 During an arrival procedure under an ifr flight plan in vmc conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:

The pilot in command.
64 If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report "field in sight", a clearance for "visual approach" may be given under certain conditions

The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
65 If no icao identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...

Write zzzz in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) altn/followed by the name of theı airport.
66 The letter "l" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:

7 000 kg.
67 When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:

030° magnetic
68 Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ats authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. this speed adjustment should not be more than:

+/- 20 kt.
69 Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by dme- distances from the same dme and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. specify the shortest difference in dme-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend

10 nm
70 For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:

When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation
71 A strayed aircraft is :

An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
72 According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic :

Before landing and take- off
73 The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 nm from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ats authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 nm from the touchdown. in this case distance and level information shall be given at each

1 nm
74 If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction

Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
75 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. the mean cross-wind component significant change is :

5 kt
76 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

5 minutes
77 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

3 minutes
78 Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using dme for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes "on track" dme stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous dme readings, is :

20 nm
79 A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. the closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. the take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:

Ceiling greater or equal to dh/mdh, and vh (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to vh required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
80 Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of ssr mode a code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :

Setting the ssr decoder to mode a code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
81 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. the mean head-wind component significant change is :

10 kt
82 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. the mean tail- wind component significant change is :

2 kt
83 When the mach number tecnique (mnt) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a rnav distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. the distance is :

80 nm
84 Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :

2 nm from touchdown
85 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :

2 nm from the touchdown
86 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the :

Last 2 nm of the approach
87 When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of : 0 spain according to jar-fcl, 24 months until age of 24 months until age of 60 months until age of 60 months until age of 0 0 -1 0 class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for thereafter

4 nm from the touchdown 40, 12 months thereafter
88 What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ?

± 20kt
89 Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation :

At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
90 In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:

The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off- blocks.
91 Above flight level fl 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:

4 000 feet.
92 Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further advised". time now is 18:36 utc. at 18:37 utc you find out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to your current flight plan route:

On the nearest way.
93 Track separation between aircraft using the same vor shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:

At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 nm or more from the facility.
94 The vertical ifr separation minimum being applied by atc within a controlled airspace above fl 290 is:

2000 feet (600 m).
95 The vertical ifr separation minimum being applied by atc within a controlled airspace below fl 290 is:

1000 feet (300 m).
96 What are the controlled ifr separation methods applied by atc?

Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
97 Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:

Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by atc.
98 The "vmc and own separation" atc clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when:

Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.
99 If an atc clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
100 Track separation between aircraft using the same fix shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:

At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 nm or more from the fix. fix.
101 Track separation between aircraft using the same ndb shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:

At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 nm or more from the facility.
102 A pilot receiving an ifr clearance from atc should: verification.

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
103 During a take-off into imc conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control: 3 portuga which letter is used in i v z y 0 0 0 -1 a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with ifr and subsequently changes to vfr? 3 portuga which letter is used in y z i v 0 -1 0 0 a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with vfr and subsequently changes to ifr?

When advised by tower.
104 W ho is responsible for an atc clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

The pilot in command.
105 Which is the content of section 2 of air-report (airep)?

Estimated time of arrival (eta), endurance.
106 A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
107 When, in air space where vfr are permitted, the pilot in command of an ifr flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1 he must inform the control unit ("cancel ifr") 2 he must request and obtain clearance. 3 he may request his ifr flight plan to be changed to a vfr flight plan. 4 the flight plan automatically becomes a vfr flight plan. the correct combination of statements is:

1 and 4
108 If radio communication failure is experienced on an ifr flight in imc, generally the pilot shall:

Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
109 A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

60 minutes prior to departure.
110 Essential traffic is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by atc is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. whenever separation minima is not applied. the following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other.

All ifr flight in controlled airspaces and controlled vfr.
111 The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by ceu (flow control centre):

Is 15 minutes.
112 The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:

Limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.
113 Which procedure you follow if during an ifr flight in vmc you have two way communication failure?

Continue the flight maintaining vmc and land as soon as practicable.
114 What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?

You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
115 Which does atc term "radar contact" signify? terminated.

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is
116 Which code shall be used on mode "a" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?

Code 7500.
117 Where a "secondary surveillance radar" (ssr) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
118 The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated:

25 nm (46 km).
119 Except otherwise established by the appropriate ats authority a surveillance radar approach (sra) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:

2 nm.
120 Time approach procedure is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. this will be obtained requesting aircraft:

To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time.
121 When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, atc unit shall:

Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
122 The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:

To provide radar separation.
123 Which code shall be used on mode "a" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?

Code 7700.
124 The air traffic control services : do not prevent collisions with terrain.

Correct, expect when an ifr flight is vectored by radar.
125 Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume own navigation". this phrase means that:

You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.
126 Alerting service shall be provided: far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ats.

For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so
127 Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:

Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.
128 When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:

50 metres.
129 In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
130 When "secondary radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures: "on".

Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "on" to "stby" and back to
131 The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:

Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over point.


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-09 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-03 PER Andalucía
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-06 PER Baleares 02

Examenes 2018

ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - País vasco
NOV 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
FEB 2018 - Alicante
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)

Examenes 2017

ABR 2017 - Andalucía
ENE 2017 - País vasco
NOV 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
MAY 2017 - País vasco
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias
OCT 2017 - Castellón

Examenes 2016

NOV 2016 - País vasco
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
ENE 2016 - Asturias
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2016 - País vasco
FEB 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia
ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2016 - Andalucía

Examenes 2015

JUN 2015 - Cartagena
JUN 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
FEB 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2015 - Asturias
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2015 - País vasco
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)
OCT 15 - Castellón

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

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PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 02
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PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2022-06 PER Test 01
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PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

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2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04
2021-10 PERL Test 04

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations
10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS
21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE
21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD
22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.02 LOADING
31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN
33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.05 PRECIPITATION
50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02