ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
1 When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide:

Is disarmed automatically.
2 The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. a greater autonomy, 2. no risk of explosion, 3. reversible functioning, 4. easy storage and maintenance, 5. possibility to regulate flow. the combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1, 3, 5
3 The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. a flow which cannot be modulated, 2. a heavy and bulky system, 3. non reversible functioning, 4. risks of explosion, 5. poor autonomy. the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5
4 A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is :

Grease
5 The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is

Taxiing with a small turning radius.
6 Skip distance is the:

Range from the transmitter to the first
7 A pressurized aeroplane is operated at fl 300. it undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. what happens concerning the oxygen system ?

The oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers
8 A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called :

Attenuation
9 The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are :

The oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function
10 Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin, the system is activated by

Firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened.
11 The abs (auto brake system) is being diconnected after landing ..

By pilot action
12 Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with :

Two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin.
13 The survival oxygen is:

The oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental depressurization.
14 The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

Provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent following a depressurization.
15 In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes : subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

A mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
16 The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. reduced weight and volume, 2. easy storage and maintenance, 3. greater autonomy, 4. no risk of explosion, 5. reversible functioning, 6. no maintenance. the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2,
17 The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about :

15 minutes.
18 Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the :

Cabin only.
19 When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:

Increases when the altitude increases.
20 In accordance with jar-ops 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a non- pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:

10000 ft.
21 In accordance with jar-ops 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:

13000 ft.
22 In accordance with jar-ops 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than: 5 france in accordance with seats by 30 %. passengers by 30%. seats by 10 %. passengers by 10 %. 0 0 -1 0 jar-ops 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater than the number of:

10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
23 The purpose of the pressure of the system valve malfunctions

Relieve overpressure if suitable manifold pressure for the
24 The type of a aircraft system intended for use by passengers, is mostly : 3 sweden a continuous-loop- fire detection system smoke detection system carbon dioxide warning fire fighting system -1 0 0 0 system

A continuous flow system
25 The passenger oxygen mask will supply :

A mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
26 The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by : on.

Switching the passenger oxygen on.
27 The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to :

Deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.
28 If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:

Oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.
29 The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is :

Gaseous.
30 Tyre "creep" may be described as the :

Circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
31 The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is : 1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system, 2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system, 3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system, 4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system. the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2
32 In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (apus) have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. these controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against :

High turbine gas temperature (tgt), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature.
33 A passenger emergency mask is a :

Continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
34 A smoke mask is a :

Mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
35 The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as:

These substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure.
36 A modern auxiliary power unit (apu) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. it also supplies both in the air (subject to certification limitations) and on the ground :

Air conditioning and electrical services.
37 Nose wheel shimmy may be described as :

A possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
38 On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from :

The aeroplane"s hydraulic system.
39 The skip zone of hf- transmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs :

Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
40 The chemical oxygen generator is a system: 1. which is inexpensive 2. requiring no external input 3. which is lightweight 4. requiring no maintenance 5. with adjustable flow rate 6. which is unsafe the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 4
41 The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. the oxygen flow starts :

After pulling the oxygen mask downwards
42 The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are: 1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes. 2. avoid operation of radio communication equipment. 3. slowly operate oxygen system valves. 4. avoid greasy matter. the combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1, 3, 4.
43 A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to fl 450. the cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle). the minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be:

198 (110% of the seating capacity).
44 The high altitude radio altimeter uses the following wavelengths:

Decimetric.
45 On the ground, the auxiliary power unit (apu) can be substituted for the:

Ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit.
46 The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the vhf direction finder is a:

Vhf transmitter- receiver operating in the 118 mhz to 136 mhz range.
47 The secondary surveillance radar (ssr) uses the following wavelengths:

Decimetric.
48 The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths:

Centimetric.
49 The vhf omnirange (vor) uses the following wavelengths:

Metric.
50 The instrument landing system (ils) uses the following wavelengths:

Metric.
51 The distance measuring equipment (dme) following wavelengths:

Decimetric.
52 The fan markers uses the following wavelengths:

Metric.
53 The microwave landing system (mls) uses the following wavelengths:

Centimetric.
54 A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1. which requires solid or branched wheels 2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations 3. whose mounting rim must be flawless 4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device 5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture 6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire the combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1, 5, 6.
55 The vhf direction finder uses the following wavelengths:

Metric.
56 The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (ndb) at a frequency of 300 khz is:

1000 metres.
57 In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:

Give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
58 From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?

Fl 250.
59 What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?

Cabin air and oxygen.
60 In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:

Hf
61 The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 mhz is:

2.46 m
62 The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

Multiple disk brake.
63 A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to :

Avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
64 In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:

Hydraulically driven.
65 Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.

Mechanically
66 If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:

Repaired several times.
67 For weather radar, the frequency 9375 mhz in x band is preferable to c band because:

It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power.
68 When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:

Able to radiotelephone.
69 The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they :

Release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
70 The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will be :

Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
71 Thermal plugs are installed in:

Wheel rims.
72 A scissor component found on landing gears. its function is to :

Prevent any rotation of on bogie gears.
73 On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

Will wear at the shoulders on dry runway
74 An oxygen regulator has 3 controls : - a power lever : on/off - an "o2" lever : normal/100% - an emergency lever : on/off among the following statements, the correct proposition is :

The power lever on on, and, the "o2" lever on normal allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.
75 Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. it can be said that :

With setting on "normal", the crew breathes a mixture of
76 In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:

100%
77 In the propagation of mf waves, the phenomenon of fading is particularly found :

At night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.
78 The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that: 1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used 2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow" passenger masks, no crew action is required 3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly 4 - the system"s filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or graphite grease the combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

01-mar
79 The function of a fusible plug is to

Protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.
80 On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:

A hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.
81 Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics : 1 - high heating 2 - valve fragility 3 - lower risk of bursting 4 - better adjustment to wheels the combination containing all the correct statements is:

03-abr
82 The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the :

User breathes in
83 The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is :

Locked-down.
84 A tubeless tyre has : 1- a built-in-air tube. 2- no built-in-air tube. 3- a crossed side casing. 4- a radial side casing. the combination of correct statements is:

2, 4.
85 In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: system.

An accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.
86 In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state:

Gaseous.
87 A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when:

The strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.
88 Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during commercial flight.

410.
89 A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the expected flight level on route paris- alger is fl 330. the first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:

1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft.
90 As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to passengers through a demonstration. if a flight is to be carried out at flight level fl 290, this demonstration must be completed before :

Take-off.
91 Landing gear torque links are used to:

Prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
92 Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when: 1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground 2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot"s actions this effect is overcome by means of: 3. the torque link 4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder the combination of correct statements is:

1, 3.
93 The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1. idle wheel speed (measured) 2. braked wheel speed (measured) 3. brake temperature (measured) 4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate 5. tire pressure the combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1, 2, 4.
94 Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft ?

Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
95 In is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground.

A latch located in the
96 A diluter demand oxygen regulator :

Delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.
97 Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. the purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to: 1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 psi (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 psi (low pressure system) 2. supply pure oxygen 3. supply diluted oxygen 4. supply oxygen at normal pressure 5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure 6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude the combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 3, 4, 5
98 (for this question use appendix ) associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:

1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels
99 In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.
100 A public transport aircraft is operated at fl 390. the total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of :

Seats exceeded by 10%.


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-03 PER Andalucía
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-06 PER Baleares 02
2019-09 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco

Examenes 2018

NOV 2018 - Andalucía
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
FEB 2018 - Alicante
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)
ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - País vasco
NOV 2018 - País vasco

Examenes 2017

OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
MAY 2017 - País vasco
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias
OCT 2017 - Castellón
ABR 2017 - Andalucía
ENE 2017 - País vasco
NOV 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)

Examenes 2016

JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
ENE 2016 - Asturias
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2016 - País vasco
FEB 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia
ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2016 - Andalucía
NOV 2016 - País vasco
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón

Examenes 2015

JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
FEB 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2015 - Asturias
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2015 - País vasco
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)
OCT 15 - Castellón
JUN 2015 - Cartagena
JUN 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2015 - País vasco

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas encontradas
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CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03
2021-13 CY Test 03
2021-07 CY Test 02
2022-12 CY Test 02

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2021-12 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03
2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 05
2022-06 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04
2021-10 PERL Test 04
2021-07 PERL Test 02

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management
10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS
21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE
21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD
22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
31.02 LOADING
31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING
33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
50.05 PRECIPITATION
50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04