ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
1 On an ifr navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information "80". this means that within this quadrant:

The minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft
2 (for this question use annex 033-9732a or flight planning manual sep1 figure 2.2 table 2.2.2) a flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. for the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours and 12 minutes. reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. power setting is 25 in.hg (or full throttle), 2100 rpm, 20° c lean. flight level is 70 and the oat 11° c. the minimum block fuel is:

283 lbs
3 A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an ifr flight. the fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 us gallons. the alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 us gallons. contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. the usable fuel at departure is 93 us gallons. at a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 us gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. assume that fuel consumption doesn"t change. which statement is right ?

The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with
4 You must fly ifr on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a msa at 7 800 ft. knowing the qnh is 1 025 hpa and the temperature is isa + 10° , the minimum flight level you must fly at is:

90
5 (for this question use annex 033-3327a or flight planning manual mep 1 figure 3.2) a flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (mep1). the cruising level will be 11000ft. the outside air temperature at fl is - 15 ° c. the usable fuel is 123 us gallons. the power is set to economic cruise. find the range in nm with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power.

752 nm
6 An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. knowing the qnh received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is isa - 15° c, the minimum flight level will be:

140
7 It is possible, in flight, to: 1 - file an ifr flight plan 2 - modify an active ifr or vfr flight plan 3 - cancel an active vfr flight plan 4 - close an active vfr flight plan which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1 - 2 - 3 - 4
8 The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. if the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:

235 l/h
9 For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:

The estimated off-block time
10 On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (msa) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:

25 nm
11 The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 utc the estimated take-off time is 1825 utc the ifr flight plan must be filed with atc at the latest at:

1715 utc
12 After flying for 16 min at 100 kt tas with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. you will arrive after:

24 min
13 A vfr flight planned for a piper seneca iii. at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 us gallons. the alternate fuel is 12 us gallons. according to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. calculate the highest rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.

30.3 us gallons/hour
14 An ifr flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235° magnetic. the minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft. knowing the qnh is 995 hpa, the minimum flight level you must fly is:

100
15 (for this question use annex 033-9552a or flight planning manual mrjt 1 figure 4.2.1) find the optimum altitude for the twin jet aeroplane. given: cruise mass=54000 kg, long range cruise or .74 mach

34500 ft
16 (for this question use annexes 033-9554a and 033-9554b or flight planning manual mrjt 1 paragraph 2.1 and figure 4.2.1) find the fuel mileage penalty for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given flight level . given: long range cruise, cruise mass=53000 kg, fl 310

4%
17 For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: flight time: 3h06min the reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. taxi fuel: 8 kg block fuel: 118 kg how much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? subject/sec aragraph wording domanda rispostaa rispostab rispostac rispostad ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4 1 france (for this question use 172 300 kg 170 400 kg 171 300 kg 176 100 kg -1 0 0 0 annex 033-11253a, 033-11253b, and 033- 11253c) knowing that: . mass at brake release: 210 000 kg . selected cruise speed: 0.82 mach . flight leg distance: 3 000 nm . cruise level: optimum . air conditioning: standard . anti-icing: off . temperature: isa . cg: 37 assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:

30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel.
18 (for this question use annex 033-9553a or flight planning manual mrjt 1 figure 4.2.1) find the optimum altitude for the twin jet aeroplane. given: cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 mach

35500 ft
19 (for this question use annex 033-4735a or flight planning manual sep 1 figure 2.5) given: fl 75 lean mixture full throttle 2300 rpm take-off fuel: 444 lbs take-off from msl find: endurance in hours.

5:12
20 (for this question use annex 033- 11065a or route manual chart paris charles de gaulle ils rwy 10 (21-8)) the ils localizer course is :

088°
21 (for this question use annex 033- 11067a or route manual chart munich ndb dme rwy 26l approach (16- 3)) the frequency and identifier of the ndb for the published approachs are:

400 msw
22 (for this question use annex 033- 11058a or route manual chart london heathrow ils dme rwy 09l (11-2)) the decision altitude (da) for a ils straight- in landing is :

280 ft
23 Minimum planned take- off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. when the aeroplane has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary?

Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.
24 (for this question use annex 033- 11060a or route manual chart madrid barajas ils dme rwy 33 (11- 1)) the minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ils is:

4000 ft
25 (for this question use annex 033- 11061a or route manual chart amsterdam jaa minimums (10-9x) the radio altimeter minimum altitude for a cat 2 ils dme approach to rwy 01l is :

100 ft
26 (for this question use annex 033- 11062a or route manual chart london heathrow ils dme rwy 09r (11-1)) the minimum descent altitude (mda) for an ils glide slope out, is:

480 ft
27 (for this question use annex 033- 11063a or route manual chart paris charles de gaulle ils rwy 27 (21-2)) the crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at coulommiers (clm) are :

Cross at fl60 descend to 4000 ft
28 (for this question use annex 033- 11064a or route manual chart munich ils rwy 26r (11-4)) the ils frequency and identifier are:

108.7 imnw
29 (for this question use annex 033- 11066a or route manual chart zurich ils rwy 16 (11-2)) the lowest published authorised rvr for an ils approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable, aeroplane category a is:

720m
30 From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of vor, tacan, and ndb ?

Notam
31 From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active

Notam and aip (air information publication)
32 From which of the following would you expect to find details of the search and rescue organisation and procedures (sar) ?

Aip (air information publication)
33 For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: flight time: 2h42min the reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. taxi fuel: 9 kg block fuel: 136 kg how much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel.
34 From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (fal) regarding customs and health formalities ?

Aip (air information publication)
35 An aeroplane has the following masses: estlwt= 50 000 kg trip fuel= 4 300 kg contingency fuel= 215 kg alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg taxi= 500 kg block fuel= 7 115 kg before departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg. the trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:

4 300 kg.
36 During an ifr flight in a beech bonanza the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. the total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. for the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. the planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. if the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel?

12 minutes.
37 How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (atfm)?

3:00 hours.
38 (for this question use annex 033- 11034a or route manual chart e(hi)5 caa-edition) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway ur24 from nantes nts 117.2 (47° 09"n 001° 37"w) to caen can 115.4 (49° 10"n 000° 27"w) is:

Fl310
39 An appropriate flight level for ifr flight in accordance with semi- circular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is:

Fl310
40 An appropriate flight level for ifr flight in accordance with semi- circular height rules on a course of 180° (m) is:

Fl100
41 (for this question use annex 033- 11037a or route manual chart e(lo)6) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway r10 from montmedy mmd 109.4 (49° 24"n 005° 08"e) to chatillon ctl 117.6 (49° 08"n 003° 35"e) is :

Fl60
42 (for this question use annex 033- 11036a or route manual chart e(lo)6) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway w 37 from cheb okg 115.7 (50° 04"n 012° 24"e) to roding rdg 114.7 (49° 02"n 012° 32"e) is :

Fl80
43 (for this question use annex 033- 11035a or route manual chart e(lo)2) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway b3 from chatillon ctl 117.6 (49° 08"n 003° 35"e) to cambrai cmb 112.6 (50° 14"n 003° 09"e) is :

Fl170
44 (for this question use annex 033- 11033a or route manual chart e(hi)5 caa-edition) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway ug5 from mende- nasbinals men 115.3 (44° 36"n 003° 10"e) to gaillac gai 115.8 (43° 57"n 001° 50"e) is :

Fl290
45 (for this question use annex 033- 11032a or route manual chart e(lo)5) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway g9 from subi sui 116.7 (52° 23"n 014° 35"e) to czempin cze 114.5 (52° 08"n 016° 44"e) is:

Fl70
46 (for this question use annex 033- 11031a or route manual chart e(hi)4 caa-edition) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway ug1 from erlangen erl 114.9 (49°39 ° "n 011° 09"e) to frankfurt ffm 114.2 (50° 03"n 008° 38"e) is :

Fl310
47 (for this question use annex 033- 11030a or route manual chart e(hi)4 caa-edition) an appropriate flight level for flight on airway ur1 from ortac (50° 00"n 002° 00"w) to midhurst mid 114.0 (51° 03"n 000° 37"w) is:

Fl250
48 You have a flight plan ifr from amsterdam to london. in the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ats route passing the fir boundary amsterdam/london. the airway clearance reads: cleared to london via flight planned route. which of the following statements is correct?

The route according to the flight plan is accepted.
49 (for this question use annex 033-9733a or flight planning manual sep1 figure 2.2 table 2.2.3) a flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. for the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours and 37 minutes. reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. power setting is 23 in.hg (or full throttle), 2300 rpm, 20° c lean. flight level is 50 and the oat -5° c. the minimum block fuel is:

265 lbs
50 (for this question use annex 033-3312a or route manual chart e(hi)4 caa-edition) an aeroplane has to fly from abbeville (50° 08.1"n 001° 51.3"e) to biggin (51° 19.8"n 00° 00.2"e). what is the first fl above fl295 that can be flown on an ifr flightplan ?

Fl 310
51 From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan notification: i - any public transport flight. 2 - any ifr flight 3 - any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the alerting service or the operations of search and rescue. 4 - any cross-border flights 5 - any flight which involves overflying water

2+4
52 The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:

Smaller.


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-09 PER Baleares 02
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Andalucía
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-09 PER Baleares 01

Examenes 2018

JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
NOV 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
FEB 2018 - Alicante
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
ENE 2018 - País vasco
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)

Examenes 2017

ENE 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2017 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2017 - País vasco
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2017 - Valencia
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias
OCT 2017 - Castellón
ABR 2017 - Andalucía

Examenes 2016

FEB 16 - Alicante
MAY 2016 - Asturias
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2016 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
FEB 2016 - País vasco
ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia
NOV 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
NOV 2016 - País vasco

Examenes 2015

JUN 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
FEB 2015 - País vasco
MAY 2015 - Asturias
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia
ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2015 - País vasco
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)
OCT 15 - Castellón
JUN 2015 - Cartagena

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas encontradas
Preguntas más Repetidas

CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03
2021-13 CY Test 03
2021-07 CY Test 02
2022-12 CY Test 02

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03
2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 05
2022-06 PER Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04
2021-10 PERL Test 04
2021-07 PERL Test 02

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management
10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES
21.02 AIRFRAME
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS
21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
31.02 LOADING

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING
33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG
50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
50.05 PRECIPITATION

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01