ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
1 If contact is lost with the runway on the down- wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?

Initiate a missed approach
2 What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?

Initiate a missed approach
3 On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :

30 degrees or less
4 W ho establishes the oca/h (obstacle clearance altitude/height) for an approavh procedure?

The state
5 Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :

6,5%.
6 In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least :

984 ft
7 The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :

A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
8 In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:

1 minute 15 seconds.
9 In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

Shuttle.
10 W ere an operational advantage can be obtained, an ils procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. the dr track will:

Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 nm in length.
11 Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

150m (492 ft).
12 In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:

Final approach segment.
13 In a precision approach (ils), the final approach segment begins at the:

Fap.
14 Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

At least 300m (984 ft).
15 In a precision approach (ils), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:

Half a scale deflection.
16 Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?

At the iaf.
17 Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Initial, intermediate and final.
18 Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

2.5%.
19 Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

At the point where the climb is established.
20 The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

Visual manoeuvring (circling).
21 It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. when this option is exercised, the published procedure:

Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
22 When the visual manoeuvring area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (oca/h) is determined:

For each category of aircraft, and it is the different for each one of them.
23 A circling approach is:

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
24 In a precision approach (ils), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
25 In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories a and b aircraft for:

1 minute.
26 In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

1 minute 30 seconds.
27 How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.

Up to 5.
28 If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

Landing runway.
29 Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by :

The rome convention
30 The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :

The rome convention
31 The rome convention and later amendments deals with :

Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
32 For a category i precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :

200 ft
33 In general, during a straight-in approach, the mdh cannot be below:

The och
34 The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :

± 5 nm
35 A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... certified to a height below 200 ft.

Using bearing, elevation and distance information.
36 Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the iaf. these sectors are established for a distance from the iaf of:

25 nm
37 During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (moc) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

50 m (164 ft)
38 During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (moc) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

30 m (98 ft)
39 During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (moc) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :

150 m (492 ft)
40 Obstacle clearance for an ils approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :

Half scale deflection of the localizer indicator. half scale
41 The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: procedures. 1 portuga (for this question use 3 4 1 2 0 0 -1 0 annex 010-9801a) using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning "require assistance" is (are) :

25° or the bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to- land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
42 During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a cat b aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:

135 kt
43 You are on an ifr flight executing a circling approach. a descend below the mda should not be made until : 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made the combination regrouping all the correct answers is :

1, 2, 3.
44 A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :

Procedure turn.
45 In the ils-approach, the oca is referenced to:

Mean sea level.
46 If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to :

Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
47 A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:

Base turn
48 Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-vor approach continue its descend below the oca?

When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight


PREGUNTAS TEMAS PNB PER.

Tecnología Naval
Maniobra
Seguridad
Navegación
Navegación (carta)
Meterología
Comunicaciones
Propulsión Mecáni.
Reglamento
Balizamiento
Legislación

Examenes 2021

Alicante ABR 21 (1)
Andalucía MAY 21
Asturias MAR 21
Asturias MAY 21
Madrid ABR 21 (1)
Madrid ABR 21 (2)
Madrid FEB 21 (1)
Madrid FEB 21 (2)
Murcia ABR 21 (1)
Murcia ENE 21 (1)
Murcia ABR 21 (2)
Murcia ENE 21 (2)
País vasco MAR 21 (1)
País vasco MAR 21 (3)
Tenerife MAY 21

Examenes 2019

2019-10 PER Valencia
2019-06 PER Madrid 01
2019-06 PER Madrid 02
2019-12 PER Canarias 01
2019-04 PER Madrid
2019-03 PER Andalucía
2019-06 PER Canarias 01
2019-12 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Mallorca 02
2019-06 PER Baleares 02
2019-03 PER Baleares 02
2019-09 PER Baleares 01
2019-06 PER Cartagena
2019-10 PER Andalucía
2019-05 PER Asturias
2019-10 PER País vasco
2019-01 PER País vasco
2019-03 PER Murcia
2019-09 PER Castellón
2019-12 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Mallorca 01
2019-06 PER Baleares 01
2019-03 PER Baleares 01
2019-09 PER Canarias 02
2019-06 PER Andalucía
2019-12 PER Madrid
2019-10 PER Murcia
2019-01 PER Valencia
2019-01 PER Asturias
2019-04 PER Valencia
2019-10 PER Madrid
2019-12 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER País vasco
2019-06 PER Canarias 02
2019-03 PER Madrid
2019-09 PER Canarias 01
2019-06 PER País vasco
2019-09 PER Baleares 02

Examenes 2018

JUN 2018 - Andalucía
JUN 2018 - Canarias (5)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (1)
SEP 2018 - Castellón
OCT 2018 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (1)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2018 - Baleares (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (5)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (2)
ENE 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Alicante
JUN 2018 - Canarias (4)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (2)
JUN 2018 - País vasco
NOV 2018 - País vasco
OCT 2018 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2018 - Andalucía
FEB 2018 - Alicante
ABR 2018 - Baleares (1)
NOV 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Canarias (4)
SEP 2018 - Baleares (1)
MAR 2018 - Murcia
ABR 2018 - Valencia
JUN 2018 - Canarias (3)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Cartagena
JUN 2018 - Baleares (1)
JUN 2018 - Madrid (2)
NOV 2018 - Valencia
MAR 2018 - Andalucía
SEP 2018 - Andalucía
OCT 2018 - Madrid (3)
SEP 2018 - Canarias (2)
MAR 2018 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2018 - Canarias (3)
ABR 2018 - País vasco
JUN 2018 - Baleares (2)
DIC 2018 - Baleares (1)

Examenes 2017

ABR 17 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (3)
NOV 2017 - Murcia
MAR 2017 - Alicante
MAY 2017 - Asturias
OCT 2017 - Castellón
ABR 2017 - Andalucía
ENE 2017 - País vasco
JUN 17 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2017 - País vasco
ENE 2017 - Asturias
OCT 17 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2016 - Alicante
DIC 2017 - Madrid (3)
JUN 2017 - Cartagena
NOV 2017 - Andalucía
ABR 17 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2017 - País vasco
DIC 2017 - Valencia
OCT 17 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2017 - Valencia
DIC 2017 - Madrid (1)
ABR 2016 - Murcia
JUN 2017 - Andalucía

Examenes 2016

ABR 16 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Valencia
NOV 2016 - Murcia
ABR 16 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2016 - Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (4)
NOV 2016 - País vasco
MAY 2016 - Asturias
FEB 16 - Alicante
OCT 2016 - Castellón
JUN 2016 -Cartagena
JUN 2016 -Andalucía
JUN 16 - Madrid (1)
JUN 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (3)
ENE 2016 - Asturias
JUN 2016 - Alicante
ABR 2016 - Murcia
ABR 2016 - Andalucía
ABR 16 - Madrid (2)
ABR 2016 - País vasco
NOV 16 - Madrid (1)
FEB 2016 - País vasco

Examenes 2015

ABR 15 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (2)
OCT 2015 - País vasco
NOV 15 - Madrid (1)
OCT 15 - Castellón
JUN 2015 - Cartagena
JUN 2015 - Andalucía
JUN 15 - Madrid (1)
MAY 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (4)
JUN 15 - Alicante
ABR 2015 - Murcia
ABR 2015 - Andalucía
ABR 15 - MadriD (2)
FEB 2015 - País vasco
JUN 15 - Madrid (3)
MAY 2015 - Asturias
ABR 15 - Valencia
NOV 15 - Valencia
NOV 2015 - Murcia

Examenes

Examen 1
Examen 2
Examen 3
Examen 4
Examen 5
Examen 6
Examen 7
Examen 8
Examen 9
Examen 10
Examen 11
Examen 12
Examen 13
Examen 14
Examen 15
Examen 16
Examen 17
Examen 18
Examen 19
Examen 20
Examen 21
Examen 22
Examen 23
Examen 24
Examen 25
Examen 26

Examenes 2020

ENE 2020 - Asturias
ENE 2020 - País vasco
FEB 2020 - Alicante
JUL 2020 - Andalucía
JUL 2020 - Murcia
JUL 2020 - País vasco
JUL 2020 - Valencia
OCT 2020 - Castellón
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (1)
OCT 2020 - Ibiza (2)
OCT 2020 - La Palma
OCT 2020 - Mallorca
OCT 2020 - Menorca
DIC 2020 - Madrid (1)
NOV 2020 - País vasco
DIC 2020 - Madrid (4)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (5)
DIC 2020 - Madrid (6)
DIC 2020 - Valencia
DIC 2020 - Valencia (1)

Preguntas Repetidas

Preguntas más Repetidas
Preguntas encontradas

CAPITÁN/A DE YATE

2021-13 CY Test 03
2021-07 CY Test 02
2022-12 CY Test 02
2021-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test02
2022-12 CY Test 01
2022-06 CY Test 01
2021-07 CY Test 03

PATRÓN/A DE YATE

2022-06 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 01
2022-06 PY Test 02
2021-07 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 03
2021-07 PY Test 01
2022-12 PY Test 02
2021-12 PY Test 01

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO

2021-07 PER Test 02
2022-10 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 03
2021-12 PER Test 05
2022-06 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 01
2021-07 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 04
2022-12 PER Test 02
2021-12 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 02
2022-06 PER Test 04
2021-07 PER Test 03
2022-12 PER Test 01
2021-12 PER Test 01
2022-12 PER Test 04
2021-12 PER Test 06
2022-06 PER Test 03

PATRÓN/A DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (PNB LIBERADO)

2021-10 PERL Test 04
2021-07 PERL Test 02
2021-10 PERL Test 02
2021-12 PERL Test 06
2022-10 PERL Test 01
2021-12 PERL Test 02
2021-07 PERL Test 04

PATRÓN/A PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid octubre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 06 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid julio 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre de 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid diciembre 2021
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02 - Madrid Junio 2022
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 01 - Madrid octubre 2022

Andalucía

2021-05 PER AND. 01
2020-06 PER AND. 01
2019-10 PER AND. 01
2019-06 PER AND. 01
2019-03 PER AND. 01
2018-09 PER AND. 01
2018-10 PER AND. 01
2018-03 PER AND. 01
2018-06 PER AND. 01
2017-10 PER AND. 01
2017-06 PER AND. 01
2017-03 PER AND. 01
2016-10 PER AND. 01
2016-06 PER AND. 01
2016-04 PER AND. 01
2015-10 PER AND. 01
2015-06 PER AND. 01
2015-03 PER AND. 01

Asturias

2021-03 PER ASTU. 01
2021-05 PER ASTU. 01
2020-01 PER ASTU. 01
2019-05 PER ASTU. 01
2019-01 PER ASTU. 01
2017-05 PER ASTU. 01
2017-01 PER ASTU. 01
2016-05 PER ASTU. 01
2016-01 PER ASTU. 01
2015-05 PER ASTU. 01

Baleares

2019 SEP PER(2)
2019 SEP PER(1)
2019 JUN PER(2)
2019 JUN PER(1)
2019 DIC PER(2)
2019 DIC PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(2)
2018 SEP PER(1)
2018 JUN PER(2)
2018 JUN PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(2)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 DIC PER(1)
2018 ABR PER(2)
2018 ABR PER(1)
2019 ABR PER(1)

Canarias

2019 JUN PER (1)
2019 JUN PER (2)
2019 SEP PER (1)
2019 SEP PER (2)
2019 DIC PER (1)
2019 DIC PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (3)
2018 ABR PER (4)
2018 ABR PER (5)
2018 JUN PER (3)
2018 JUN PER (4)
2018 JUN PER (5)
2018 SEP PER (1)
2018 SEP PER (2)

Cataluña

2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 2er
2022-10 Patró/ona d'embarcació d'esbarjo 1er
2022-7 Capità/ana de iot
2022-10 Patró/ona de navegació bàsica
2022-07 Patró/ona de iot

Murcia

2021 ENE PER (1)
2021 ENE PER (2)
2021 ABR PER (1)
2021 ABR PER (2)
2020 JUL PER
2019 MAR PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 MAR PER
2018 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 NOV PER
2015 ABR PER
2015 NOV PER

Pais Vasco

2021 MAR PER
2021 MAR PER
2019 ENE PER
2019 ABR PER
2019 JUN PER
2019 NOV PER
2018 ENE PER
2018 ABR PER
2018 JUN PER
2018 NOV PER
2017 ENE PER
2017 ABR PER
2017 MAY PER
2017 NOV PER
2016 ABR PER
2016 JUN PER
2016 NOV PER
2016 FEB PER
2015 FEB PER
2015 MAY PER
2015 OCT PER
2020 ENE PER
2020 JUL PER
2020 NOV PER

Valencia

2015-03 - Valencia PER
2015-10 - Valencia PER
2016-10 - Valencia PER
2016-03 - Valencia PER
2017-12 - Valencia PER
2017-05 - Valencia PER
2018-10 - Valencia PER
2018-03 - Valencia PER
2019-10 - Valencia PER
2019-03 - Valencia PER
2019-02 - Valencia PER
2020-06 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER
2020-12 - Valencia PER

Madrid

2015-03 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 01
2015-06 PER MADR. 02
2015-06 PER MADR. 03
2015-06 PER MADR. 04
2015-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 01
2016-03 PER MADR. 02
2016-06 PER MADR. 01
2016-06 PER MADR. 02
2016-10 PER MADR. 01
2016-10 PER MADR. 02
2017-03 PER MADR. 01
2017-03 PER MADR. 02
2017-12 PER MADR. 01
2017-12 PER MADR. 02
2017-06 PER MADR. 01
2017-06 PER MADR. 02
2017-10 PER MADR. 01
2017-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-03 PER MADR. 01
2018-03 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 01
2018-10 PER MADR. 02
2018-10 PER MADR. 03
2018-10 PER MADR. 04
2019-03 PER MADR. 01
2019-03 PER MADR. 02
2019-12 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 01
2019-06 PER MADR. 02
2019-10 PER MADR. 01
2020-12 PER MADR. 05
2020-12 PER MADR. 02
2020-12 PER MADR. 03
2020-12 PER MADR. 04
2021-03 PER MADR. 01
2021-03 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 02
2021-02 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 01
2021-12 CY MADR. 02
2022-06 CY MADR. 01
2022-06 CY MADR. 02
2021-07 CY MADR. 01
2021-07 CY MADR. 02
2021-12 PY MADR. 01
2021-12 PY MADR. 02
2022-06 PY MADR. 01
2022-06 PY MADR. 02
2021-07 PY MADR. 01
2021-07 PY MADR. 02
2021-10 PER MADR. 01
2021-10 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 01
2021-12 PER MADR. 02
2021-12 PER MADR. 03
2021-12 PER MADR. 04
2022-06 PER MADR. 01
2022-06 PER MADR. 02
2022-06 PER MADR. 03
2022-06 PER MADR. 04
2021-07 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 02
2021-06 PER MADR. 01
2021-07 PER MADR. 03
2021-10 PERL MADR. 01
2021-10 PERL MADR. 02
2021-12 PERL MADR. 01
2021-12 PERL MADR. 02
2021-07 PERL MADR. 01
2021-07 PERL MADR. 02
2021-10 PNB MADR. 01
2021-10 PNB MADR. 02
2021-12 PNB MADR. 01
2022-06 PNB MADR. 01
2021-07 PNB MADR. 01

ATPL 10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.03 - ICAO Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration
10.06 - Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations
10.02 - ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
10.05 - ICAI Annex 2: Rules of the air
10.00 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
10.01 - International law: conventions, agreements and
10.04 - ICAO Annex 1: Personnel licensing
10.07 - Air Traffic Services and Air Traffic Management

ATPL 21 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

21.02 AIRFRAME
21.05 HELICOPTER EQUIPMENT
21.08 ELECTRICS
21.11 PROTECTION & DETECTION SMOKE/FIRE
21.01 LOADS / STRESSES / FATIGUE / CORROSION / MAINTENANCE
21.04 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES & BRAKES
21.07 FUEL SYSTEMS
21.10 TURBINE ENGINES
21.03 HYDROMECHANICS: BASIC PRINCIPLES
21.06 FLIGHT CONTROLS
21.09 PISTON ENGINES

ATPL 22 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

22.07 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
22.03 EARTH MAGNETIC FIELD
22.06 ALERTING SYSTEMS AND PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
22.02 MEASUREMENT OF AERODYNAMIC PARAMETERS
22.05 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
22.08 TRIMS ? YAW DAMPER ? FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION
22.01 INSTRUMENT AND INDICATION SYSTEMS
22.04 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS

ATPL 31 MASS AND BALANCE — AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS

31.02 LOADING
31.01 PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE
31.04 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
31.03 MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT

ATPL 33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

33.01 AIRCRAFT FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
33.03 FUEL PLANNING
33.06 PRACTICAL COMPLETION OF A FLIGHT PLAN
33.02 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
33.05 JET AEROPLANES FLIGHT PLANNING (ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS)
33.01 VFR NAVIGATION PLAN, FUEL PLAN, FUEL CALCULATION
33.04 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING

ATPL 50 METEOROLOGY

50.06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
50.05 PRECIPITATION
50.01 THE ATMOSPHERE
50.03 THERMODYNAMICS
50.07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
50.09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
50.02 WIND
50.08 CLIMATOLOGY
50.04 CLOUDS AND FOG

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO)

Convocatoria Madrid Abril 2024

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB Liberado)
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01

Andalucia 1ª convocatoria 2024

EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO B (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO B (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.N.B. MODELO A (Patrón de Navegación Básica) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO P.E.R. MODELO A (Patrón de Embarcaciones de Recreo) 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO PATRÓN DE YATE. MÓDULO GENÉRICO 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024
EXAMEN TEÓRICO PARA LA OBTENCIÓN DEL TÍTULO CAPITÁN DE YATE. MÓDULO NAVEGACIÓN 1ª Convocatoria: 6 de abril de 2024

Convocatoria Madrid Noviembre 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE YATE Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (CON PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE CAPITÁN DE YATE Código de Test 01

Convocatoria Madrid Junio 2023

EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 01
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO (Con PNB LIBERADO) Código de Test 02
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN PARA NAVEGACIÓN BÁSICA Código de Test 04
EXAMEN DE PATRÓN DE EMBARCACIONES DE RECREO Código de Test 03